Comments

  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    - What exactly are you disputing? This?:

    There is definitely something wrong, that's not in dispute.unenlightened

    Mental illness is surely a problem, no? And how do we approach it? Psychologically, sociologically, medicinally...? You may not like the psychiatric approach to mental illness, but what alternative would you propose? Do you at least admit that mental illness represents a societal problem?
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    Is there a way to delete private messages?Leontiskos

    Outlander answered this for me privately. My Stylebot settings were hiding the option. :blush:
  • The Problem of 'Free Will' and the Brain: Can We Change Our Own Thoughts and Behaviour?
    I figure Spinoza made short work of this. We deliberate between choices as means to achieve our ends. Whatever is making it possible for this to happen is not a copy of our nature.

    If the agency we experience gives us no conception of what is happening, presuming a 'determinism' is not an argument against the reality of deliberation.
    Paine

    Yes, and I find the roots of this in Aristotle as well. Whereabouts in Spinoza could this be found?
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    It's a hypothetical example - nuance is to be avoided in making the distinction between the personal psychological analysis and the social relations analysis.unenlightened

    I suppose my point is that social approaches to mental health need not be conspiracy theories. Describing social theories with the example of, "worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of," and the need of "a new government," makes it sound a lot like a conspiracy theory.

    There is a lot going on in the OP. Probably too much. The social aspect is part of it, but not an especially large part.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    The social diagnosis is that he is suffering from a worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of, and what he needs is a new government.unenlightened

    Founders of that tradition such as Alfred Adler would have a more nuanced take.

    I think many people recognize that mental health cannot merely be reduced to a medical issue or a social issue or a psychological issue, etc. Nevertheless, paradigms for treatment remain necessary.
  • A quote from Tarskian
    Why do you assume that a natural leader with no people to lead and a slave without a master to serve will inevitably live in isolation. Why cannot they live in society?Ludwig V

    You asked about slaves without masters and masters without slaves. If a master is not isolated from slaves then he is not without slaves, and vice versa.

    I'm finding this very confusing. I think this would all have been a lot clearer if we could just drop the bit about slavery and talk about leaders and followers.Ludwig V

    Isn't it just that "slave" and "servant" have become dirty words? But they were not dirty for Aristotle ("doúlos").

    I'm all for classlessness. But there's nothing wrong with distinguishing between classes of people when the criterion of membership is relevant.Ludwig V

    Does not the substantive question come down to whether a distinction is relevant or real? When Aristotle argues for natural slavery he is arguing that the distinction between natural slaves and natural masters is both real and relevant. When someone opposes him they are arguing that such a distinction is either not real or not relevant. We could say that those who favor "universal equality" are those who see fewer real and relevant distinctions between humans.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - Probably the most basic evidence for Jesus' claim to divinity is the fact that the Jewish authorities arranged to have him executed for blasphemy.* Someone who does not understand the Jewish context of the New Testament should presumably start there.

    * For example, Mark 14:64
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    A lack of disk capacity caused the site to crash recently, so I've had to remove the ability to upload files, which was a privilege for subscribers. I'm not sure if I'll make this permanent — I would prefer not to upgrade to the next plan, which would give us more space for uploads...Jamal

    Two quick questions.

    1. Is there a way to delete private messages? If there is, then encouraging people to delete their obsolete PMs would free up some space, even going forward.

    2. Would a new hosting service solve this problem, or would TPF still be pushing the space limit at places like Communiteq, given comparable hosting plans?
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm glad to hear you're reading Kimhi -- not for the faint of heart! In fact you may find parts of it easier going than I did, due to your background in Aristotle.J

    A lot of it is on point for me, even though he is going deeper than I have seen others go. It is also bringing together a number of disparate interests of mine, which is great.

    It may come down to the difference between 'not-X' (negation as an operation within a proposition) and 'It is not the case that (p)' (denial of a proposition)J

    I think that's right, but I think it can be elaborated further.

    What Kimhi adds to this, in a manner I'm still grappling with, is the unity part: the claim that "the assertion 'p is true' is the same as 'I truly think p'." In general, the role of an act of consciousness in Kimhi's philosophy is what allows him to take a thoroughly monist stance on these matters, but as I've said before, I think he could have done a much clearer job explaining it.J

    Yes, but in his defense I think it is very hard to elucidate the manner in which the intellect knows truly, and how truth is both psychological and ontological. This is also related to the table that the ND reviewer gives, which would also be a good jumping off point:



    Reveal
    [math]\begin{array} {|c|c|}\hline A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. \\ \hline p. & Not-p. & A's\,belief\,is\,correct. \\ \hline So\,A's\,belief\,is\,incorrect. & So\,A's\,belief\,is\,correct. & So\,\,p. \\ \hline  \end{array}[/math]
    


    I didn't participate in the thread you refer us to, and I'm not prepared right now to try to take it all in.J

    I wouldn't really recommend reading it, but it is an interesting test case of what would happen if we ignore Kimhi's points, such as the point that (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. In large part that thread is just people assuming that it is a genuine proposition, and also some devoted Fregeans being adamant about this. Obviously that assumption leads to problems at every turn.

    One of those "disparate interests" that Kimhi brings together is the strange situation I find myself in on TPF, where there are some who have become very proficient at the manipulation of logical symbols—which they are quick to lord over others—and yet they seem to have no idea of the purpose of logic. For example, the problem with viewing (b∧¬b) as a proposition is that it does not fit with the final cause of logic, and these people have no understanding of the question, "What is the final cause of logic?" They have no reference point outside the internal machine of logic.

    Kimhi talks about this:

    A similar point can be made with respect to Frege’s use of semantic notions such as “the sense of . . .” and “the reference of . . . ,” namely, insofar as we come to see them as pointing to similarities and differences displayed by the notation, we recognize that they are not predicates, since all predicates are expressible using the notation; hence we come to see them as mere means deployed to communicate the use of the notation to a learner. In the end, the success of this communication requires this realization. One can say, therefore, that Frege’s universalist conception is eliminativist with respect to both semantical and formal-categorical discourse. Note that the very construction of the Begriffsschrift is not in any obvious way internal to the fact-stating discourse, namely, we cannot describe it as the actualization of the capacity of linguistic self-consciousness which is internal to the activity of assertion as such. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 91-2

    Picking on Banno again, a stark example of this sort of thing can be seen in a thread trying to figure out what logic even is:

    . . .You are appealing to usage, but the etymology and the historical usage point very clearly to logic as an art of reasoning.

    They say that one of the best ways to learn something is to teach it. A few weeks ago I looked at your thread which is intended to teach propositional calculus (link). It's no coincidence that in your third substantial post you were already into truth tables. But even in your first substantial post you said, "What we want to do is to examine the relations between these propositions, rather than their contents." It seems to me that it would have been more apt to say that we want to examine the relations that obtain between these propositions based on their content. Relations hold or fail to hold in light of the content of the relata, and this has everything to do with truth.

    Now a pedagogue might choose to introduce the rules of logic before introducing the purpose of logic, much like you could teach a child to kick a ball before introducing them to the game of soccer. Of course I am not convinced that this is sound pedagogy.
    Leontiskos

    The posts I was responding to are defending what would be labeled by Kimhi "the modern schematic conception of logic" (pp. 89-90). It is fascinating to me that Banno would teach logic without starting by telling his pupil what logic is for. When is the pupil ever to learn what the tool of logic is used for? Or the teacher? This is something like the epitome of a functionalist approach which attempts to prescind from all ontological questions.

    Thus one reason I am interested to read Kimhi is to understand what pitfalls Frege was attempting to avoid in constructing a system that has led to such oddities ("psycho-logicism").
  • Do (A implies B) and (A implies notB) contradict each other?
    In 's thread on Irad Kimhi some of the same issues that were present in this thread are coming up again. For example:

    Hence, for example, understanding p as an expression of consciousness depends on understanding the use of p in negation. As such, from this point of view we come to see that no conscious act is displayed or specified by the proposition of the form (p and ~p) and therefore no judgment or assertion is displayed by ~(p and ~p). This means that ~(p and ~p) and (p and ~p) are not genuine propositions. Understanding OPNC [ontological principle of non-contradiction] consists in seeing that the repetition of p in these logical contexts is self-cancelling. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 31

    This thread quickly turned into a discussion of (a→(b∧¬b)), and a few of us raised the question of whether (b∧¬b) is a "genuine proposition," to use Kimhi's language. First was Count Timothy:

    Can anyone think up a real world example where you would point out that A implies both B and not-BCount Timothy von Icarus

    Then I argued <here>, that (b∧¬b) is not ontologically possible. Following Kimhi I would say that it is also not psychologically possible. The truth-functionalists trying to stick to their guns could only make sense of (b∧¬b) as FALSE (or falsum, which is the same thing). As I pointed out multiple times, false is different from contradictory/absurd/impossible. And as I also argued multiple times, sentences containing (b∧¬b) are not well-formed in the specific sense I laid out. In Kimhi's language (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. It will not do to say, "Ah, Kimhi doesn't understand Fregean logic." The point is that if Fregean logic thinks (b∧¬b) is a genuine proposition, so much the worse for Fregean logic.

    But I would say that even in propositional logic things like (b∧¬b) are never part of the object language (and again, RAA ferrets them out). They only represent a sort of second-order psychological act, and they can only be asserted by those who do not understand that they are asserting a contradiction. But when someone contradicts themselves, the sense of what is asserted is crucially different from the sense of what is objected to, for the person asserting does not recognize the contradiction within their claim.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    “From the monist point of view, a simple propositional sign displays a possible act of consciousness.” -- the possibility of affirmation or negation.J

    Reading more of Kimhi's book, I am appreciating it, especially the way he explodes the Fregean paradigm over and over. I think Kimhi could help clear up the truth-functional confusions overflowing in <this thread>, which are all essentially based on the Fregean form-substitutability between (A & ¬B) and (B & ¬B).

    But another overlap between the child thread and Kimhi is as follows:

    In English we can deny in a manner that does not affirm the negation of any proposition, and this violates the way that propositional logic conceives of the LEM. In fact, going back to flannel’s thread, this shows that a contradiction in English need not take the form (A ^ ~A). In English one can contradict or deny A without affirming ~A.Leontiskos

    (Propositional logic seems to assume, prima facie, not only the commonsensical idea that C is neither A nor B, but also the deeply counterintuitive idea that C is neither ¬A nor ¬B. Usually if C is neither A nor B then it must be both ¬A and ¬B.)Leontiskos

    Compare Kimhi:

    [For the non-Fregean] The truth-connector is therefore seen as an expression of an operation. In fact, we can speak of truth and falsity operations, which are performed by . . . is true and . . . is false respectively. The assertion “p is true” is the same as “I truly think p.” There is no logical gap between these assertions. By contrast, the assertion “p is false” is not the same as “I truly think not-p.” Thus, truth and falsity operations are not symmetrical. However, they both apply to p and “A thinks p.” It is only in judgments about others that the use of . . . is false is required in addition to negation. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 93

    I would want to say that calling something false is to deny, not to negate, and that the asymmetry of affirmation and denial is well represented by Kimhi's final sentence here. Denial requires an interlocutor in a way that affirmation does not (and this interlocutor could also be merely represented). The corollary here seems to be that saying "p is false" is not the same as saying "not-p".

    At this point I would want to see denial and negation as distinguished according to what Kimhi says on 87 about Aristotle, where denial is an assertion "away from" and a negation is a "separation." But I would have to look into this more, and I know Kimhi will go on to speak about whether and in what way these are truly distinct.

    (I also really like Kimhi's work in unifying the various formulations of the PNC, a point that I have often found difficult to convey to those whose paradigm precludes it.)
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I’ve been working with some ideas in Irad Kimhi’s Thinking and Being. Much of what he talks about concerns the nature of the relationship between predication and truth-assertion. It occurred to me that “Existence is not a predicate” has some obvious parallels with “Truth is not a predication.” That is, neither existence nor truth add anything, conceptually, to what they appear to be predicating ‛existence’ and ‛truth’ of. I can say “A hundred thalers exist” but this adds nothing to the concept ‛a hundred thalers’; I can say “It is true that there are a hundred thalers on the table” but this adds nothing to the proposition ‛There are a hundred thalers on the table’.J

    Before looking at affirmation and negation I want to revisit this part of the OP now that I have a better understanding of the context.

    Colloquially, I want to say that both predications of truth and existence add something to the thing they are predicated of, for this thing is thought to be truth apt or existence apt. By thinking of such predicables as "apt" they are thought of as logically pre-true or pre-existing. This way of thinking seems to be what we now consider normal. Of course, it is possible to affirm such predications without the words "true" or "exists."

    Regarding the idea that existence is not a predicate, I think this is tied to standard compositional syllogistic. It would seem that judgments of existence are atomic in a way that is foreign to the combining and separating that constitutes logical acts, and therefore questions of existence are considered pre-logical (including being prior to logical predication). Formal logic is only concerned with existence qua logical function, as for example is seen by the existential quantifier. Existence, then, is treated as a kind of meta-predicate which is barred from being taken into per se consideration within the object language, given the way that it is not (logically) manipulable.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    From the Notre Dame review of Irad Khimi's Thinking and BeingRussellA

    Informative review. :up:
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    Again, what you have written shows multiple errors in your understanding of formal logic.Banno

    I see you are back to your schtick of non-responses. I will take this as a concession, and move on with the topic of the thread.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm sorry you can't see how it answers the OP. It is at least a beginning.Banno

    Okay, I grant that it is a beginning. My point is that formal considerations cannot answer the OP. "There are no true sentences that are not about some thing," is not a formal consideration. It is at best a presupposition of formal logics, not a conclusion. And whether every true sentence in a formal language is about existing things is a contentious topic.

    Existence, at least as qualification, ranges over individuals, while truth ranges over propositions. The OP asks about the relation between existence and truth.Banno

    As you pointed out:

    So generally, existence is not a first order predicate; nor is truth.Banno

    Again, the concepts of existence and truth are presuppositions of formal logic, not things that formal logic handles as first-order predicates. If we are considering and comparing the presuppositions of formal logic, then we have already taken a step beyond the object language.

    I might reply, in kind, that all (true) sentences can be parsed into propositional logic. "p". Therefore all true sentences are "formulable within formalism".Banno

    Even if they could, we know from Godel that not all true sentences can be shown true in propositional logic. By limiting ourselves to a formal context we limit our access to truth.

    Claiming that there is no explicit predication of existence or truth in formal logic is ignorant.Banno

    Claiming that the existential quantifier is equivalent to predicating existence is ignorant, and you know this. Your first post hedged on this sort of thing.

    This post will just rattle your cage. That is probably all that can be done until J can formulate a more explicit topic.Banno

    The topic is fine. The problem is your approach which sees everything as a nail, because your only tool is a hammer. If you want a thread on the internal workings of formal logic, maybe you are the one who needs to make a new thread. The idea that all questions can be answered by formal logic is daft, and provably false. It's high time you stopped pigeonholing every thread into your naive paradigm.

    -

    Logical systems are meant to capture correct human reasoning, and although each system fails in certain unique ways, all formal systems fail insofar as they are static and because of this lack recursion or reflexivity. One of the most unique properties of the human mind is its ability to think about its own thoughts, with a kind of infinite reflexivity. Formalized systems lack this "self-knowledge," so to speak. Godel used this fact to prove his incompleteness theorem, but it goes deeper than that. Thinkers who turn their gaze on truth qua truth or being qua being (as opposed to truth qua consistency or being qua stipulation) are using the muscle of the human mind that allows this infinite reflexivity. Trying to do such work while limiting oneself to a static formal system is to presume that the static system can demonstrate true statements about itself in this reflexive manner, and this presumption always turns out to be false. The static system will only ever arrive at faux truth and faux being, for the simplifications that are part and parcel of static systems preclude one from thinking about truth in itself or being in itself.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - What I find in the U.S. is that Protestantism tends to be narrow minded, and those that reject this tradition desire to be broad minded, in much the way that a compressed spring reacts against its compression. This would help explain the reactionary attitude among ex-Protestants towards a kind of broad mindedness, even where no rational justifications are present. I've seen in this thread a fair amount of resentment towards any "narrowed" conception of Christianity, in one case even unto the remarkably unjustified conclusion that anyone who is not hateful is therefore somehow Christian. I grant that there are many people who are resentful towards narrow or exclusivist forms of Christianity, but I do not grant that this has anything to do with rigorous philosophical thinking. Along similar lines, many of the ways that strong inclusivity has crept into Christian theology can be directly traced to parents who had a vested interest in the idea that their children who left the faith did not in fact leave the faith. This was, for example, the motivational context for Rahner's "anonymous Christians."

    I don't know where you fall in any of this, but in general you tend to be a more precise thinker who does not carve out a position based on emotional reaction, so I do not assume that this trend would apply.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    This is simply not true. This is why I pointed to the use of the term son in the Hebrew Bible. It is used many times both in the singular and plural. It often refers to kings and rulers and never means a god.Fooloso4

    Have you now reduced a historical question to an exegetical question? The number of ex-Protestants in this thread is not coincidental.

    The disciples, Paul, and other Jewish followers did not believe that Jesus was a god.Fooloso4

    Of course he did. Paul incorporates Jesus into the Hebrew Shema in places like 1 Corinthians 8:4-6. He says that Jesus bears the image of God in 2 Corinthians 4, and the name of God in Philippians 2.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    This is the topic at hand, and it is addressed to christians.unenlightened

    And your statement seems to have nothing at all to do with it. So again I ask, What does this have to do with the topic at hand?
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    It includes the question of whether certain assumptions should be regarded as true.Fooloso4

    And the one who actually reads the OP notices sentences like this one:

    It seems to me that the only way to justify self-defense is to either (1) abandon stipulation #1 or (2) reject #3.Bob Ross

    The one with a predetermined interpretation has to ignore sentences like that one.
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    There is a difference between deliberating and rule following.Fooloso4

    The one who is engaged in the attempt to formulate and justify rules is not engaged in mere rule-following. This false charge is common.

    It is not a matter of inquiring into the rationale for justified self-defense but, as the OP makes clear, of self-defense under the constriction of certain stipulated moral principles.Fooloso4

    No, it is an inquiry into whether a justification for self-defense is consistent with certain axioms.
  • A quote from Tarskian
    You are right, Aristotle's slavery is not a sufficient condition of forcible enslavement.Ludwig V

    Good, we are in agreement on this.

    I left with just two questions. How do natural slaves who have no master live? How do natural rulers who have no people to rule live?Ludwig V

    I think Aristotle's answer to both would be, "Poorly." If humans are social animals, then flourishing will require society, and where society is lacking flourishing is lacking. A master or slave in isolation would be like a part disconnected from the whole, and in both cases the lack of cooperation or communion will make their lives worse than what they otherwise would be.

    Does the master not require the slave to flourish? Mutual dependency, common good. Positively inspiring!Ludwig V

    Yes, the master does require the slave to flourish.

    Perhaps. He may well not be. He probably doesn't have the time, what with running the whole show.Ludwig V

    Sure, but he is capable in a way that the slave is not. There may be some curious exceptions of masters who cannot function as slaves, such as Stephen Hawking, whose body was not capable of manual labor.

    I understand that some people think that Aristotle's argument demonstrates that universal human equality is nonsense. It is indeed nonsense if it means that everyone is the same. But Aristotle's argument demonstrates what it does mean. For the motivating assumption of the argument is that everyone should be treated in the way that is appropriate to them. Irrelevant circumstances (such as Hecuba's birth - Simpson p. 12) should not come into play. The only issue is what is appropriate to who.Ludwig V

    Yes, I agree.

    That's what universal equality means.Ludwig V

    It seems to me that universal equality means that the same things are appropriate to each. Or at least it often means this, or leans in this direction. A kind of classlessness.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    In this case, what is shown is that there are no sentences that are not about some thing, and so not true sentences that are not about some thing. That seems a direct answer to the OP.Banno

    How would this be an answer to the OP? The question we are considering is whether all true sentences are formulable within formalism, and it seems a foregone conclusion that they are not. For example:

    I was curious to learn more about what philosophers have said concerning the parallels between "truth" and "existence" as predicates...J

    Given that there is no explicit predication of existence (or, I think, truth) within formal logics, how could this question possibly be answered by limiting ourselves to formal logics?

    It's a bit like if someone said they wanted to look at the interaction between thunderstorms and tornadoes, and then the lab scientist tries to give an answer without leaving his concrete bunker. The scientific lab in the concrete bunker is very helpful, in large part because it excludes thunderstorms and hurricanes from the environment and makes everything a lot simpler. But if we want to study thunderstorms and hurricanes, or their interaction, then it's no use pretending that the scientific lab within the concrete bunker is going to suffice.

    The classical solution was, roughly, that an extensional understanding of logic is preferable simply because it is simpler.Banno

    Simplifications are preferable until they're not. What often happens is that folks forget they are dealing with a simplification, and they forget that there is something beyond these simplifications.

    But there are intensional logics...Banno

    Sure, and intentional logic would seem to be a topic that is relevant to the thread. The danger of derailment that I spoke of is not present in a discussion of intentional logic, for that which the thread is premised upon is not rejected in such a case. :up:
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    He is clear that he opposes what he calls “psycho / logical dualism”: “a theory of judgment as involving a subjective act and a truth-evaluable content – the unity and complexity of which is external to the judging subject.” In short, he doesn’t accept the Fregean picture that assertoric force is separate from whatever semantic content will determine truth value.J

    This strikes me as an important truth, and one that is missed on TPF (and in analytic philosophy generally). Granted, I do see a measure of separability between assertoric force and semantic content, and this is especially useful in a pragmatic or functional sense, but it seems pure fantasy to claim that they are entirely separate.

    A metaphor for this thread could be the truck in the mud. The Fregian paradigm does fine in many types of mud, and folks like Banno seem to think that it can handle any kind of mud whatsoever, but Kimhi is introducing mud pits that such folks have never seen or even conceived. I would even say that the failure of Fregian logic in certain contexts is demonstrable, and was already demonstrated in the QV thread by folks like Sider and Simpson. The most honest answer from the Fregian would apparently be something like, "Our system cannot and does not address these questions, but we are not interested in the questions anyway."

    But the “psycho / logical monism” that he does accept is (for me) very difficult to understand. I’ll take my best guess and say that, unlike Aquinas, Kimhi sees the “fundamental act of consciousness” as either affirmation or denial – what he calls a two-way capacity, borrowing from Aristotle. Propositions are affirmed or denied by acts of consciousness, not by predications – a kind of “full context principle.”J

    I was thinking of bringing the question of affirmation and denial into the thread as well, as it seems central. For those who view logic as bound up with human reasoning and human mental acts, the foundationalness of affirmation and denial cannot be ignored. This is why Aristotle, Aquinas, and presumably Kimhi are interested in those acts. It has never been clear to me how so many on this forum fail to recognize that logic is bound up with human reasoning and human mental acts, and especially how they manage to insulate logic from mental acts, including analyses of assertoric force, existence-predications, predication of truth beyond mere consistency, intellection of terms as opposed to mere discursive arranging, etc. In practice metalogical concerns are simply ignored, but they become the elephant in the room.

    This has been on my backburner for some time, and I will look at Aquinas (and also Aristotle), but my sense is that Aquinas would say that affirmation and denial are the foundational linguistic and logical acts, but that they are the crest after the trough of the wave of apprehension, and that trough is apprehension of being. So affirmation always does follow upon apprehension of being, but the two are not identical.

    He also has this interesting observation, which harks back to the QV discussion, and to banno’s reminders here about logical form and ontological commitment: Kimhi calls Frege’s logic a functionalist logic, and says moreover that it’s extensionalist, “insofar as the truth-value of a proposition depends only on the extensional identity of its components and the manner of composition. Among other things, that means that logical principles are not about propositions (thoughts) but about what gets quantified.” (my italics) This is a pretty concise way of framing the problem. Because if you oppose this view of logic, as Kimhi does, then you seem to be saying that “propositions (thoughts)” can be the subject of logical thinking without committing to “what gets quantified,” which in turn would mean that existence can – would have to be – more than just “the value of a bound variable.” I dunno, maybe I’m reading too much into it, but that’s what it says to me.J

    These are good and interesting thoughts, but surely the task is to define an alternative to extensionalism, and then within this process one will end up better defining extensionalism. In particular I wonder if we can discern an alternative without adverting to metaphysics and the very difficult question of being qua being. More simply: does a critique of extensionalism require one to appeal to a metaphysical context, or is the critique also achievable within a physical context?

    I do see value in the extensionalism of analytic philosophy, but it also has limitations. On one view extensionalism is a later and inevitable stage in logic, and the preliminary stages involve gaining an understanding of the realities and terms that will be manipulated by the extensionalist framework. It seems that Kimhi is saying that it isn't this simple, and that the paradigm of extensionalism is not even sufficient to make true sense of this later stage of logic. I do think that if we press intelligent extensionalists they will say, "Well yes, I admit that there are simplifications and pragmatic assumptions occurring in our work." Someone like Kimhi is perhaps pressing further, asking for a more precise specification of what those simplifications and assumptions are.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy
    I think this would be toying with language a little too freely. In English at least, we don't 'drive' our bodies, we 'move' them. And in fact, we usually don't even 'move our bodies' – we just 'move'. The body is the subject, not the object.cherryorchard

    Yes, I agree.

    But I don't understand the leap from these clearly acceptable claims to the claim that we don't see material things at all. Where does the 'sense-data' come from, if not from the world outside? And if it does come from the world outside, what are we arguing about?cherryorchard

    These strike me as good points and good philosophizing.

    From your posts, I'm starting to think that what I really need to do is read Aristotle's Metaphysics...cherryorchard

    Perhaps, but there are probably more contemporary and focused treatments of the subjects that interest you. With that said, Aristotle is great once you get the hang of him.

    There are no words in the theory that lack an antithesis. But Gellner seems to suggest here that the theory requires not only that words have antitheses, but also that all theories have meaningful exceptions. Why should it require that? I can't see how it follows logically.cherryorchard

    Right: there is a difference between a word and a theory, or a word and a predication.

    ---

    Your "opponent" is being misled by the common philosophical tendency to assume that every noun denotes an object.Ludwig V

    That seems reasonable.

    (In fact, 'bachelors are unmarried' does sound like something you might really say to someone who wasn't sure what the word 'bachelor' meant – a child or a language learner, e.g.).cherryorchard

    Right, and the connotations of 'bachelor' and 'unmarried man' also differ. If the two terms were identical in meaning then the tautology would be informationless, and this could be chalked up to a lack of contrast. For example, "All bachelors are bachelors."
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    It should be obvious to anyone who understands what phronesis is that it involves thinking through ethical questions. Thinking through ethical questions, however, does not mean the attempt to find abstract, universalizable, one size fits all answers that can be appealed to in lieu of moral deliberation.Fooloso4

    Moral principles are part of moral deliberation, and thinking to them and through them is part of ethics. Else, you fall into caricatures and strawmen if you think that inquiring into the rationale for justified self-defense is seeking "one-size-fits-all answers."
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    If by “bracket” you mean “declare them out of bounds when discussing predication,” then yes, there wouldn’t be much left to say about whether predication might reveal parallels between existence and truth.J

    Right.

    But I think it’s fine to get clear on what the standard commitments are, and why they’re so useful. Particularly useful for those of us like me who hated actually doing logic.J

    Sure, I agree.

    “It’s the end of analytic philosophy as we know it, and I feel fine!”*J

    Hah, I like that quote. I have a love-hate relationship with analytic philosophy. I was trained at an analytic school that strongly emphasized Thomism, and after a long time I began to see the downfalls of analytic philosophy, as well as the idea that a reduction of Thomism to analytic philosophy is an impoverishment. At the same time, Thomism is conducive to analytic philosophy, and can form a bridge between analytic philosophy and more substantial approaches to philosophy.

    Analytic philosophy ought to be a transparent frame that can represent all different kinds of thinking, but it turns out to be pigeon-holed in certain directions. But I digress.

    Part of what’s confusing in Kimhi is that he often uses ‛I think p’ to mean ‛I judge that p’, as you can see in the above passage. But of course ‛I judge that p’ is even closer to what you’re calling “the notion of the true,” and Kimhi is certainly pointing to a second act of the intellect which makes self-conscious what has been initially thought or judged.J

    Yes, exactly. Clearly Kimhi is interested in using a finer scalpel than Thomas, but there may be a disagreement insofar as Thomas thinks apprehension of being and apprehension of being-as-true are two subtly different things, and that this represents one of the subtle ways that being and truth are separable. Given what you say, it is not clear to me whether Kimhi sees there to be any apprehension of being that is (metaphysically) prior to an apprehension of truth. Or in other words, does Kimhi see the fundamental "act of consciousness" as already bound up with truth?

    It may be that while Aquinas is interested in comparing being to truth, Kimhi is interested in comparing being to the superset of truth called "thinking." For Aquinas being and truth are not the same thing, and yet it requires great subtlety to discern and describe in what way they differ. Nevertheless, if we set aside the very fine scalpel for a moment, it seems that their difference has to do with the difference between apprehension and judgment. For Aquinas there is a subtle way in which being precedes truth, and also apprehension of being precedes apprehension of truth (and certainly judgment of truth).

    When we think about formal predications being and truth seem to always go hand in hand, because in formal predication truth is being taken for granted, and as Aquinas points out, being is always taken for granted. For this reason I don't see how the two could separate in that formal context (and by "formal predication" I am not necessarily talking about anything more complicated than things like, "The grass is long."). If we want to test their separability we must move out of that context.

    - Yes, good.
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    It is, as Plato and Aristotle knew, a matter of phronesis, of good judgment.Fooloso4

    You leave out the other thing that Plato and Aristotle knew: thinking through ethical questions aids us in arriving at good judgment. No one has ever arrived at good judgment by avoiding all thought of ethics.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy
    It seems to me pure nonsense to say 'we only ever see indirectly', because it draws on the image of 'direct seeing' only to deny that such a thing exists.cherryorchard

    Right, and when I tried to bridge your thread with the thread discussing whether we see colors or only our perceptions of colors I ran into this same problem (link).

    It's a little like saying 'we only ever drive cars indirectly, because we use the pedals and the steering wheel' – that is what driving a car consists of. 'Indirect' (or indeed 'direct') doesn't enter into it, unless there are two varieties of driving (real or imagined) that can actually be classified using those words.cherryorchard

    This is a great analogy. It is right to give the rejoinder that driving a car in itself is not direct or indirect, it is just what it is, namely driving a car. What the proponent of indirectness might say is that when we "drive" our body we are doing so directly, and in comparison to this driving a car is indirect. They would probably say that to drive is to mobilize, and that when we interact with the steering wheel and the pedals we are interacting with the things that interact with other things that mobilize the car. I would rather say that we use instruments (or instrumental causes) to drive a car, and that there is no such thing as driving a car without this instrumental causality.

    But note that if a relevant contrast can be provided, such as "driving" a body, then the statement can be made sense of. The reason I think Austin is correct is because the people who speak in this manner can usually only provide a superficial contrast, which does not hold up under scrutiny.

    But let's say I have a friend who is a sense-data proponent. He says that his terminology is perfectly meaningful. There are direct experiences (mental and physical sensations, feelings, thoughts) and indirect experiences of the outer world (sights, smells) that come to us through 'sense-data'. He says this contrast between direct and indirect makes those words perfectly valid and useful. I don't agree with him. But I still feel I'm losing the argument.cherryorchard

    Usually when this topic comes up on these forums the proponent of indirectness ends up being pushed in the direction which says that we directly see our sensations and impressions, and then we infer from those sensations something about the external world. It would be a bit like if you received an encrypted message, and once you decrypted it you would possess information about the external world. As far as I can see, the correct response to this idea is that sight does not involve anything like this inferential process, and that to go further and talk about subconscious inference places us in very dubious waters.

    (Oh, and just for future reference, though I realise it's hardly relevant to our discussion – I am a 'she' rather than a 'he'!)cherryorchard

    Well that's refreshing! I am in the habit of making the assumption on this forum and this is the first time I was wrong. Sorry about that.
  • How to Justify Self-Defense?
    Just a reminder...wonderer1

    But I've got that off my chest now, so carry on.wonderer1

    You did say that, but you obviously didn't follow through on your word. Remind yourself that not two hours later you showed yourself untrue by continuing your petty attack on philosophy:

    Why? So you can feel particularly righteous?wonderer1
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?


    I am of the opinion that Banno at least somewhat derailed your thread on QV by immediately shifting it away from Sider's ontological realism and towards pure logical formalisms which intentionally avoid questions of ontology. I hope that does not happen again, as it would apparently be completely against the spirit of this thread to bracket all questions about being and ontology.

    With that said, a bridge from Banno's concerns could be formed by considering the opinions of the inventors of the formalisms. What did Frege and Peirce, or older logicians like Kant, Abelard, or Aristotle think about the questions of the OP and the way that their systems interacted with it? Probably I am just repeating the prompt of the OP, but maybe that's okay.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    It seems that many here are under the mistaken impression that Christianity is and always was monolithic.Fooloso4

    Many more are under the impression that there are no good historical or theological reasons to hold that Mormons are not Christians. I hope your post was not yet another non sequitur argument for that idea.

    Paine was responding to Art48, and there is no evidence at all that he was limiting Christianity to Nicean or Chalcedonian Christianity. Curiously, Art48's OP is more theologically astute than your excursus, because it is a very late phenomenon for self-identified Christians to identify Jesus as a mere man. Dozens of early Christian sects would have disagreed with the Christology of Nicea, but none of them held that Jesus was just a man. All of the disputes among early Christians were about what sort of non-mere man Jesus was.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians


    I put you on ignore for reasons that have been made manifest, but I can write another post. My response will help show why you are on ignore.

    It seems you think that God's existence cannot be proved, and therefore it cannot be affirmed. So then you look at Christians who say they believe in God and you conclude, "Ah, they can't be affirming that God exists, so they must be believing in God without affirming God's existence." You think that in doing this you are taking up a very intelligent and benevolent position, and you disdain the peons who say that Christians affirm the existence of God. It goes without saying that you can't find a source to support your position for the life of you, and of course anyone with two brains cells to rub together knows that Christians (and all theists) affirm the existence of God. Be that as it may, you continue to pat yourself on the back and evade every inquiry into the substance of your strange position. You may have even read a theological text or two and confused yourself further by reading your stupid theory into the text.

    When your position is scrutinized, instead of giving a transparent answer you evade and pivot to the standard variety of atheist apologetics, "Well then you must be able to prove that God exists, so do it!" You would turn a thread on Christian alternatives into a thread on proofs for the existence of God, just like all the banal atheists roaming the internet. Of course there are serious inquirers into the existence of God, but you don't seem to be one of them, and this thread is not about that topic. "I can't prove God's existence, therefore Christians don't affirm God's existence," is a deeply impoverished argument.

    The notion that you think your stupid position makes you sophisticated is curious. It is like the fellow who thinks he is sophisticated because he refuses to admit that 2+2=4, and everyone who wants to do geometry or algebra or calculus just ignores his raving and goes about their business. Or like I said earlier, it is like the flat-Earther. You are of course free to start a thread about your stupid idea. Call it, "Do Christians really think God exists?" I don't think it will fool even the theologically illiterate users within this thread, and I certainly have no interest in arguing with flat-Earthers, but you can carry on in that way if you like.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy


    It doesn't concern me a great deal exactly what Wittgenstein or Austin held. The OP is an inquiry into the question of whether The Contrast Theory of Meaning (or some contrast theory of meaning) can stand. So cherryorchard is looking at Gellner's objections as well as other devil's advocate objections he thought of, and seeing if a contrast theory can stand. If you disagree with contrast theories then you could probably give cherryorchard some additional objections. Or if you want to argue that Wittgenstein or Austin did not hold to a contrast theory, I suppose you can do that.

    My position is that at least the sort of meaning that is communicated to others must abide by some variety of contrast theory. This is because that which is not placed in relief against some backdrop cannot be picked out, and if someone cannot pick something out then it cannot be communicated to them. Therefore if someone is to understand what is meant, the communication must involve relief against some backdrop.

    Perhaps meanings that are not communicated between linguistic agents do not need to abide by the contrast theory, but the sort of meaning that is communicated to others apparently does need to abide by some variety of contrast theory.

    Nevertheless, if we are to remain within the spirit of the OP we would be asking whether there are any good objections to contrast theories.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy
    What is his argument? What is the problem with "the contrast theory of meaning"?Banno

    That is a central question of the OP, and in the second half of the OP cherryorchard gestures towards a few of Gellner's objections to try to get the ball rolling. I don't have the book of Gellner's in question.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    If I discover that there is something that is a ball, whatever reasons I give to support that discovery will be the same reasons needed to show that ‛There is a ball’ is true. There is no further fact I need to learn in order to affirm the truth of the proposition about the ball’s existence. This takes “parallel” extremely close to “identity,”...J

    Bringing in Aquinas:

    Truth is being under the aspect of being-known (Aquinas).Leontiskos

    Objection 3. Further, things which stand to each other in order of priority and posteriority seem not to be convertible. But the true appears to be prior to being; for being is not understood except under the aspect of the true. Therefore it seems they are not convertible.

    Reply to Objection 3. When it is said that being cannot be apprehended except under the notion of the true, this can be understood in two ways. In the one way so as to mean that being is not apprehended, unless the idea of the true follows apprehension of being; and this is true. In the other way, so as to mean that being cannot be apprehended unless the idea of the true be apprehended also; and this is false. But the true cannot be apprehended unless the idea of being be apprehended also; since being is included in the idea of the true. The case is the same if we compare the intelligible object with being. For being cannot be understood, unless being is intelligible. Yet being can be understood while its intelligibility is not understood. Similarly, being when understood is true, yet the true is not understood by understanding being.
    Aquinas, ST Ia.16.3.ad3 - Whether the true and being are convertible terms?

    Freddoso's alternative translation:

    Objection 3: Things that are related as prior and posterior do not seem to be convertible. But true
    seems to be prior to being, since a being is understood only under the notion of the true (sub ratione
    veri). Therefore, it seems that they are not convertible.

    Reply to objection 3: There are two ways to interpret the claim that a being cannot be
    apprehended without the notion of the true (sine ratione veri).
    In the first way, it has this sense: ‘A being is not apprehended unless the notion of the true follows
    upon the apprehension of the being’. So interpreted, the claim is true.
    In the second way, it can be interpreted as follows: ‘A being could not be apprehended unless the
    notion of the true were apprehended’. And this is false.
    It is the case, however, that something true cannot be apprehended unless the notion of being is
    apprehended. For being enters into the definition of true.
    It is the same as comparing intelligible to being. For a being cannot be understood unless that
    being is intelligible, and yet a being can be understood without its intelligibility being understood.
    Similarly, a being as understood is true, but it is not the case that in understanding being, one understands true.
    Aquinas, ST Ia.16.3.ad3 - Is 'true' convertible with 'being'?

    Perhaps Kimhi recognizes this, but the idea is that to recognize the notion of the true requires a second act of the intellect, a kind of back-folding of the intellect, or the trough and the crest of the selfsame wave of apprehension. This second act is what I was pointing to above dialogically with the interaction between Plato and Aristotle. Aquinas would presumably say that the apprehension of being is in some sense prior to the apprehension of the notion of (its) truth.
  • The 'Contrast Theory of Meaning' - Ernest Gellner's critique of ordinary language philosophy


    You are reading Gellner backwards. He is not saying that the Contrast Theory of Meaning defeats Wittgenstein and Austin. He is saying that something like the Contrast Theory of Meaning is held by Wittgenstein and Austin, and that it is incorrect. If you don't like the Contrast Theory of Meaning, then you are agreeing with Gellner, because he doesn't like it either.
  • Antinatalism Arguments
    I am fine with that. But I gave my thoughts on pinprick world.schopenhauer1

    They have all been addressed.

    It’s either not suffering as we normally define itschopenhauer1

    Pain isn't suffering? This is ad hoc, and it brings with it more problems:

    It certainly opens the can of worms as to which sorts of suffering need to be prevented and which sorts don't, and that is a can of worms that antinatalists take many precautions to keep closed.Leontiskos

    -

    since no one is obligated to bring happiness only prevent suffering in this instance, it can be defended.schopenhauer1

    Again, completely irrelevant:

    Put differently, "If we omit the pinprick from (1) then (3) does not follow from (2)." I agree and I have not said otherwise.Leontiskos

    -
    The problem is using Benatar as if he’s purely doing hedonic calculusschopenhauer1

    Again, there is nothing about balancing or hedonic calculus involved in the objection. At this point your reading comprehension is coming into question.

    Either way, Benatar goes out of the way tgat even if you don’t bite the bullet in pinprick scenario, THIS world is not that world...schopenhauer1

    Again:

    What would you say to Benatar in that scenario? Why trust an argument in our world that you would not trust in that world? The argument by its very nature cannot be invalidated by the minimization of suffering, and yet this is what you are committed to.Leontiskos

    The point can be rephrased in any number of ways. "The woman learns that any children she has will inherit her extremely painful disease. Should she bear children?" "The antinatalist learns that any child she has will experience a pinprick of pain. Is this sufficient to exclude children?" To be blunt, the idea here is that your argument is stupid because it justifies stupid decisions. It makes no sense to say, "Ah well the advice does justify stupid decisions, but it is still good and reasonable advice."

    he has a litany of follow-up empirical evidence of how we are often mistaken psychologically and empirically just how bad it is in regards to present pain and pain reflected or projected.schopenhauer1

    ...and paternalistic gaslighting is the icing on the cake. "Humans think life is good even in spite of the pain, but they're wrong so we're going to exterminate the race through lack of births." What is the difference between this and genocidal insanity?
  • Antinatalism Arguments
    I see the consequentialist antinatalist rationale as something like this:

    1. If we polled everyone on their deathbed, X% would wish they had never been born
    2. Therefore, X% of potential future persons would not want to be born
    3. Therefore, we should not give birth to new human beings

    Further, I would rather prevent a life of suffering in spite of a future person's preference. There are many people that hurt themselves, and society determines it just to thwart their preference.Down The Rabbit Hole

    You seem to be saying, "It looks like X isn't going to be high enough to justify (3), therefore we can't give them a choice." This is a bit like the father at the theme park who reasons, "My daughter wants to go on this ride, and if she goes on it she will probably enjoy it, so I can't let her go on it." This is reminiscent of the "paternalism" that schopenhauer1 claims to oppose.

    My same objection to the happiness poll would apply to the birth preference one though. I don't know how many of those suffering at end of life wish they had never been born.Down The Rabbit Hole

    The imaginary poll is taken at end of life:

    The consequentialist antinatalist apparently thinks that if we polled everyone on their deathbed and asked them if life was worth living or they wished they had never been born, the vast majority* would wish they had never been born.Leontiskos