Comments

  • An Analysis of "On Certainty"
    Would it help if we noticed that Wittgenstein is acknowledging uses of "know" that he subsequently argues are illegitimate?Banno

    Sure I can see that, but I am wondering if he would be able to provide a legitimate use of "know."
  • An Analysis of "On Certainty"
    No. It is a prompt towards seeking justification - "Can't you see it?. Look closer".Banno

    But as I understand it looking closer could never provide Wittgenstein with justification for knowledge, and thus it is odd to say that "looking closer" will somehow yield justification.

    Wittgenstein takes it as read that knowing requires justification, and hence were there is no proposition to supply the justification, one cannot be properly said to know.Banno

    The oddity is that the ultimate justification for empirical knowledge is usually thought to be sense data, and so for Wittgenstein to say that sense data does not count as a justification seems to commit him to the view that knowledge of this kind does not exist at all. If nothing is self-justifying then how can anything be justified?

    The question of foundationalism is here the elephant in the room, is it not? With Sam, I don't see how it can be avoided. Does Wittgenstein believe that knowledge exists at all? And if so, what would be an example of knowledge and its attendant justification?
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    I have given textual evidence that speaking against the Law is regarded by the accusers as blasphemy.Fooloso4

    You said this:

    To break the Law is blasphemy.Fooloso4

    I asked you to defend it and you gave a non sequitur argument. Now you are finally admitting, albeit quietly, that you were wrong:

    It is not simply a matter of breaking the Law, as it every offense however minor would be a blasphemous offense. What is at issue destroying or abolishing the Law.Fooloso4

    So we agree: your earlier claim that breaking the Law is blasphemy is false.

    Again, you make my point. A son of man is a human being.Fooloso4

    What is your conclusion here supposed to be? That Jesus is claiming that anyone who is human can forgive sins? Do you even believe yourself when you make these sorts of points, like Aristotle's boxer who swings without knowing what he is doing? Can you see anything at all through the foggy polemicism of your glasses?

    It requires no discernment to understand that what is being spoken of is not a mere human being:

    and behold, with the clouds of heaven
    there came one like a son of man,
    and he came to the Ancient of Days
    and was presented before him.
    And to him was given dominion
    and glory and kingdom,
    that all peoples, nations, and languages
    should serve him;
    his dominion is an everlasting dominion,
    which shall not pass away,
    and his kingdom one
    that shall not be destroyed.
    — Daniel 7, RSV

    If you like:

    'One like a human being' receives the kingdom from the 'Ancient One'. Is this second figure a symbol of the nation that will exercise the dominion (the Jewish people), depicted as a human rather than an animal? Or is he a divine figure (such figures represented as in human form, Dan 8:15; 10:5)? If so, is he Michael, who 'stands' for the Jews in 12:1? — The Oxford Bible Commentary, Daniel
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    Acts, as quoted and referenced, says that Stephen spoke blasphemous words against Moses and against God. To speak blasphemous words against Moses means to speak against the Laws of Moses.Fooloso4

    Here is your argument:

    • Speaking against the Law is blasphemy.
    • Therefore, To break the Law is blasphemy.

    I can explain why this is a non sequitur if you need me to.

    Breaking the Law is not blasphemy, but the one who claims to have power over the Law blasphemes if they are not above the Law (as God is above the Law):

    I tell you, something greater than the temple is here. And if you had known what this means, ‘I desire mercy, and not sacrifice,’ you would not have condemned the guiltless. For the Son of man is lord of the sabbath.”Matthew 12:6-8

    Jesus gets accused of blasphemy for doing things like placing himself above the temple, or calling himself lord of the sabbath, or teaching and reinterpreting the Law "with authority," or forgiving sins. These are all the unique prerogatives of God, and not of lesser divine beings. Jesus and his accusers both know this.

    The accusation of blasphemy, according to this story was false.Fooloso4

    You are missing the subtlety of the writings entirely. The subtlety of the Gospels and the Jewish mind is characterized by a verse like John 11:51. The charge of blasphemy is both correct and incorrect. It is correct in that it is not a conspiracy theory spun up out of nowhere; it is incorrect in that God's Son has God's prerogatives. What is blasphemous for others is not blasphemous for him.

    For example, Luke 5:24 does not say, as you seem to think it does, "Oh, I'm not God but I can forgive sins anyway." Instead he says, "I, in my uniqueness as the Son of man,* can forgive sins, and to prove it I will cure this paralytic." The premise that only God can forgive sins is left untouched, significantly. The center of that text is the forgiveness of sins, and the healing is meant to support Jesus' authority to forgive sins.

    * Cf. Daniel 7
  • Perception
    Most of the time this neural activity is a response to sensory stimulation of biological sense organs, but sometimes it is a response to other things, whether those be artificial sensory aids, drugs, sleep, or mental illness.Michael

    Does the same hold of color?

    --

    The reason color is not a percept is because humans know that there are things which alter our percepts without altering the external objects of our percepts, and because of this the most common use of the word 'color' has a super-perceptual referent. For example:

    This would be a neat argument for why colors and percepts are not the same thing. The percept of the ball changed, but its color stayed the same.Leontiskos

    When a shadow falls over a ball we do not say that the color of the ball has changed, because we differentiate our visual perception of the ball from the ball's color. We know that things like paint change the ball's color whereas shadows do not. This is just like the indirect realism argument regarding perspective (i.e. the way that distant objects appear smaller).

    "Color is a percept" is a false statement, just as, "Objects are percepts" is a false statement. Nevertheless, there is a manner in which color is more "perceptual"/subjective than shape. Color is more one-dimensional than shape given that it cannot be perceived by any other sense, and it is interpreted by the brain in a more idiosyncratic manner than shape is (i.e. it is more dependent on the particularly human cognitive apparatus than something like shape). But it is incorrect to take these subtle differences and turn them into crass statements like, "Science has proved that color does not exist!"
  • Perception
    They are seeing in the sense of having a visual experience but not seeing in the sense of responding to and being made aware of some appropriate external stimulusMichael

    Okay good, and this is true even if their percepts are identical, yes? Therefore to see an external object is not merely a matter of percepts, yes?Leontiskos

    Note that just as one can have a visual experience of an object without seeing an external object, so too one can have a visual experience of a colored object without seeing an external colored object. I can hallucinate a horse and I can hallucinate the horse's brownness, and this is different from seeing a real horse and seeing its real brownness. The distinction you are making applies equally well to color.
  • Perception
    But other mechanisms such as a cortical visual prosthesis can help. Much like a cochlear implant helps where an ear trumpet can't.Michael

    There are cases where nothing will help. Again:

    Of everyone with a brain, there are some blind and deaf people who can be helped by aids to sight or hearing, and others who cannot. To understand the difference between the two is to understand why sight and hearing are not reducible to [the subject].Leontiskos
  • Perception
    They are seeing in the sense of having a visual experience but not seeing in the sense of responding to and being made aware of some appropriate external stimulus, much like the schizophrenic is hearing in the sense of having an auditory experience but not hearing in the sense of responding to and being made aware of some appropriate external stimulus.Michael

    Okay good, and this is true even if their percepts are identical, yes? Therefore to see an external object is not merely a matter of percepts, yes?
  • Perception
    @Michael

    So when the blind dream are they seeing? They are obviously interacting with percepts, and you think percepts are seeing, so apparently the blind are seeing when they sleep.

    Sleeping pills are not a cure for blindness.Leontiskos
  • Perception
    I'm not confusing myself because I haven't claim that "hearing voices" isn't a euphemism for "hallucinate".Michael

    You've claimed that the "hears" in "hears voices" is just like the "hears" in ordinary predications about hearing, which is false, because "hears voices" is a euphemism for hallucination.
  • Perception
    No one is arguing brains can hear without input of any sort. The argument is that no can hear without a brain.Hanover

    But who is arguing that persons can hear without brains?
  • Perception
    It's not equivocation to say that the schizoprenic hears voices. That's just the ordinary way of describing the phenomenon.Michael

    No, "hears voices" is a euphemism for "hallucinates." You are confusing yourself.
  • Perception
    What distinguishes the dream with the electrode example is the claim "there is a chair" does not correspond with reality in the dream, but it does with the electrode.Hanover

    Does the "electrode" result in sight or a hallucination? (And why is this question important?)
  • Perception
    Why does that matter? It is still normal to describe someone with a cochlear implant as hearing things, and the same for those with an auditory brainstem implant.

    If you only want to use the words “see” and “hear” for those with normally functioning sense organs then you do you, but it’s not wrong for the rest of us to be more inclusive with such language.
    Michael

    Of everyone with a brain, there are some blind and deaf people who can be helped by aids to sight or hearing, and others who cannot. To understand the difference between the two is to understand why sight and hearing are not reducible to the brain. If they were reducible to the brain then everyone with a brain would be able to see and hear, and everyone who is blind or deaf would be helped by brain-based aids.
  • Perception
    That's also false. The blind can't see anything no matter what their brains are doing.jkop

    Yep. :up:

    It's odd that we even have to have these sorts of conversations.
  • Perception
    The blind can see if their brains are directly stimulated.Hanover

    This is equivocation on "seeing." For example, a blind person does not see when they dream, as your verbiage would have it. Sleeping pills are not a cure for blindness.

    This is due to the uncontroversial scientific fact that perception is created by the brain regardless of whether the stimulus enters the brain through the normal means of sensory organs or whether it is hot wired directly through a probe.Hanover

    This is an equivocation on "created." There is a lot of equivocation going on between you and Michael.

    In sight the brain processes external signals, it does not create images. In that case the images require both the brain and the external stimulus. In hallucination the brain does create images, for in that case the images require no external stimulus. Your whole facade requires equivocation between these two very different cases. If there were no difference between seeing the wolf and hallucinating the wolf, then you would be right. In that case we would not even have two different words, "seeing" and "hallucinating."
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    I point to sources that support what you claim I made up.Fooloso4

    Then do it. Defend either of those two claims. :roll:

    "To break the law is blasphemy." This is the sort of nonsense that most 10 year-old Christians or Jews could correct. To see someone with such ignorance speak with such confidence is remarkable.

    If you were arguing in good faith you would admit that.Fooloso4

    The irony. :lol:
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    psychiatrists by comparison are more in the way of witch doctorstim wood

    They are the priestly caste, and the priestly caste is always taken seriously both by others and by themselves, in part because their function within society is seen to be so important. And of course it cannot be denied that it is important.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    To break the Law is blasphemy.Fooloso4

    Fourth, related to the others, is the claim to be the Messiah. The Messiah is divine but is not God.Fooloso4

    Feel free to defend either of these two claims. The second claim is more truly <It was considered blasphemy to claim to be the messiah>.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - You are making things up left and right, and I see no reason to reply to such bizarre and unsubstantiated ideas.
  • Do (A implies B) and (A implies notB) contradict each other?
    - Yes, I very much like the way you set this out. A contradictory word and a contradictory intention/meaning are two different things, and a capable thinker must be able to recognize when words and meanings separate.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    Psychiatric treatment is model or theory based, which may not work for a particular patient, and may even be just plain wrong for a particular patienttim wood

    Sure, but this is throwing out the baby with the bathwater. Psychiatry could be the Devil himself, but even so the whole system would collapse without it. So we'll need to keep the devil around until we can figure out how to do without him. Cutting off his head will only make things worse.

    You may not like the psychiatric approach to mental illness, but what alternative would you propose?Leontiskos

    it seems to me the best treatment is holistic in approach, providing what is needed: drugs if needed; counseling/therapeutic/custodial support as needed, and likely a mix.tim wood

    Okay, so you think psychiatry is too narrow of an intervention. I don't find that controversial, but I'm not sure we want the thread to devolve into an argument over psychiatry. The larger picture must be kept in mind, which is abductive. Churchill's saying about democracy could be adapted for psychiatry. If one wants to oppose psychiatry then the true task is to offer a better alternative, not to just bash psychiatry.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    - What exactly are you disputing? This?:

    There is definitely something wrong, that's not in dispute.unenlightened

    Mental illness is surely a problem, no? And how do we approach it? Psychologically, sociologically, medicinally...? You may not like the psychiatric approach to mental illness, but what alternative would you propose? Do you at least admit that mental illness represents a societal problem?
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    Is there a way to delete private messages?Leontiskos

    Outlander answered this for me privately. My Stylebot settings were hiding the option. :blush:
  • The Problem of 'Free Will' and the Brain: Can We Change Our Own Thoughts and Behaviour?
    I figure Spinoza made short work of this. We deliberate between choices as means to achieve our ends. Whatever is making it possible for this to happen is not a copy of our nature.

    If the agency we experience gives us no conception of what is happening, presuming a 'determinism' is not an argument against the reality of deliberation.
    Paine

    Yes, and I find the roots of this in Aristotle as well. Whereabouts in Spinoza could this be found?
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    It's a hypothetical example - nuance is to be avoided in making the distinction between the personal psychological analysis and the social relations analysis.unenlightened

    I suppose my point is that social approaches to mental health need not be conspiracy theories. Describing social theories with the example of, "worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of," and the need of "a new government," makes it sound a lot like a conspiracy theory.

    There is a lot going on in the OP. Probably too much. The social aspect is part of it, but not an especially large part.
  • A sociological theory of mental illness
    The social diagnosis is that he is suffering from a worldwide recession engineered by financial interests he has zero knowledge of, and what he needs is a new government.unenlightened

    Founders of that tradition such as Alfred Adler would have a more nuanced take.

    I think many people recognize that mental health cannot merely be reduced to a medical issue or a social issue or a psychological issue, etc. Nevertheless, paradigms for treatment remain necessary.
  • A quote from Tarskian
    Why do you assume that a natural leader with no people to lead and a slave without a master to serve will inevitably live in isolation. Why cannot they live in society?Ludwig V

    You asked about slaves without masters and masters without slaves. If a master is not isolated from slaves then he is not without slaves, and vice versa.

    I'm finding this very confusing. I think this would all have been a lot clearer if we could just drop the bit about slavery and talk about leaders and followers.Ludwig V

    Isn't it just that "slave" and "servant" have become dirty words? But they were not dirty for Aristotle ("doúlos").

    I'm all for classlessness. But there's nothing wrong with distinguishing between classes of people when the criterion of membership is relevant.Ludwig V

    Does not the substantive question come down to whether a distinction is relevant or real? When Aristotle argues for natural slavery he is arguing that the distinction between natural slaves and natural masters is both real and relevant. When someone opposes him they are arguing that such a distinction is either not real or not relevant. We could say that those who favor "universal equality" are those who see fewer real and relevant distinctions between humans.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - Probably the most basic evidence for Jesus' claim to divinity is the fact that the Jewish authorities arranged to have him executed for blasphemy.* Someone who does not understand the Jewish context of the New Testament should presumably start there.

    * For example, Mark 14:64
  • Uploading images, documents, videos, etc.
    A lack of disk capacity caused the site to crash recently, so I've had to remove the ability to upload files, which was a privilege for subscribers. I'm not sure if I'll make this permanent — I would prefer not to upgrade to the next plan, which would give us more space for uploads...Jamal

    Two quick questions.

    1. Is there a way to delete private messages? If there is, then encouraging people to delete their obsolete PMs would free up some space, even going forward.

    2. Would a new hosting service solve this problem, or would TPF still be pushing the space limit at places like Communiteq, given comparable hosting plans?
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm glad to hear you're reading Kimhi -- not for the faint of heart! In fact you may find parts of it easier going than I did, due to your background in Aristotle.J

    A lot of it is on point for me, even though he is going deeper than I have seen others go. It is also bringing together a number of disparate interests of mine, which is great.

    It may come down to the difference between 'not-X' (negation as an operation within a proposition) and 'It is not the case that (p)' (denial of a proposition)J

    I think that's right, but I think it can be elaborated further.

    What Kimhi adds to this, in a manner I'm still grappling with, is the unity part: the claim that "the assertion 'p is true' is the same as 'I truly think p'." In general, the role of an act of consciousness in Kimhi's philosophy is what allows him to take a thoroughly monist stance on these matters, but as I've said before, I think he could have done a much clearer job explaining it.J

    Yes, but in his defense I think it is very hard to elucidate the manner in which the intellect knows truly, and how truth is both psychological and ontological. This is also related to the table that the ND reviewer gives, which would also be a good jumping off point:



    Reveal
    [math]\begin{array} {|c|c|}\hline A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. & A\,believes\,p. \\ \hline p. & Not-p. & A's\,belief\,is\,correct. \\ \hline So\,A's\,belief\,is\,incorrect. & So\,A's\,belief\,is\,correct. & So\,\,p. \\ \hline  \end{array}[/math]
    


    I didn't participate in the thread you refer us to, and I'm not prepared right now to try to take it all in.J

    I wouldn't really recommend reading it, but it is an interesting test case of what would happen if we ignore Kimhi's points, such as the point that (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. In large part that thread is just people assuming that it is a genuine proposition, and also some devoted Fregeans being adamant about this. Obviously that assumption leads to problems at every turn.

    One of those "disparate interests" that Kimhi brings together is the strange situation I find myself in on TPF, where there are some who have become very proficient at the manipulation of logical symbols—which they are quick to lord over others—and yet they seem to have no idea of the purpose of logic. For example, the problem with viewing (b∧¬b) as a proposition is that it does not fit with the final cause of logic, and these people have no understanding of the question, "What is the final cause of logic?" They have no reference point outside the internal machine of logic.

    Kimhi talks about this:

    A similar point can be made with respect to Frege’s use of semantic notions such as “the sense of . . .” and “the reference of . . . ,” namely, insofar as we come to see them as pointing to similarities and differences displayed by the notation, we recognize that they are not predicates, since all predicates are expressible using the notation; hence we come to see them as mere means deployed to communicate the use of the notation to a learner. In the end, the success of this communication requires this realization. One can say, therefore, that Frege’s universalist conception is eliminativist with respect to both semantical and formal-categorical discourse. Note that the very construction of the Begriffsschrift is not in any obvious way internal to the fact-stating discourse, namely, we cannot describe it as the actualization of the capacity of linguistic self-consciousness which is internal to the activity of assertion as such. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 91-2

    Picking on Banno again, a stark example of this sort of thing can be seen in a thread trying to figure out what logic even is:

    . . .You are appealing to usage, but the etymology and the historical usage point very clearly to logic as an art of reasoning.

    They say that one of the best ways to learn something is to teach it. A few weeks ago I looked at your thread which is intended to teach propositional calculus (link). It's no coincidence that in your third substantial post you were already into truth tables. But even in your first substantial post you said, "What we want to do is to examine the relations between these propositions, rather than their contents." It seems to me that it would have been more apt to say that we want to examine the relations that obtain between these propositions based on their content. Relations hold or fail to hold in light of the content of the relata, and this has everything to do with truth.

    Now a pedagogue might choose to introduce the rules of logic before introducing the purpose of logic, much like you could teach a child to kick a ball before introducing them to the game of soccer. Of course I am not convinced that this is sound pedagogy.
    Leontiskos

    The posts I was responding to are defending what would be labeled by Kimhi "the modern schematic conception of logic" (pp. 89-90). It is fascinating to me that Banno would teach logic without starting by telling his pupil what logic is for. When is the pupil ever to learn what the tool of logic is used for? Or the teacher? This is something like the epitome of a functionalist approach which attempts to prescind from all ontological questions.

    Thus one reason I am interested to read Kimhi is to understand what pitfalls Frege was attempting to avoid in constructing a system that has led to such oddities ("psycho-logicism").
  • Do (A implies B) and (A implies notB) contradict each other?
    In 's thread on Irad Kimhi some of the same issues that were present in this thread are coming up again. For example:

    Hence, for example, understanding p as an expression of consciousness depends on understanding the use of p in negation. As such, from this point of view we come to see that no conscious act is displayed or specified by the proposition of the form (p and ~p) and therefore no judgment or assertion is displayed by ~(p and ~p). This means that ~(p and ~p) and (p and ~p) are not genuine propositions. Understanding OPNC [ontological principle of non-contradiction] consists in seeing that the repetition of p in these logical contexts is self-cancelling. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 31

    This thread quickly turned into a discussion of (a→(b∧¬b)), and a few of us raised the question of whether (b∧¬b) is a "genuine proposition," to use Kimhi's language. First was Count Timothy:

    Can anyone think up a real world example where you would point out that A implies both B and not-BCount Timothy von Icarus

    Then I argued <here>, that (b∧¬b) is not ontologically possible. Following Kimhi I would say that it is also not psychologically possible. The truth-functionalists trying to stick to their guns could only make sense of (b∧¬b) as FALSE (or falsum, which is the same thing). As I pointed out multiple times, false is different from contradictory/absurd/impossible. And as I also argued multiple times, sentences containing (b∧¬b) are not well-formed in the specific sense I laid out. In Kimhi's language (b∧¬b) is not a genuine proposition. It will not do to say, "Ah, Kimhi doesn't understand Fregean logic." The point is that if Fregean logic thinks (b∧¬b) is a genuine proposition, so much the worse for Fregean logic.

    But I would say that even in propositional logic things like (b∧¬b) are never part of the object language (and again, RAA ferrets them out). They only represent a sort of second-order psychological act, and they can only be asserted by those who do not understand that they are asserting a contradiction. But when someone contradicts themselves, the sense of what is asserted is crucially different from the sense of what is objected to, for the person asserting does not recognize the contradiction within their claim.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    “From the monist point of view, a simple propositional sign displays a possible act of consciousness.” -- the possibility of affirmation or negation.J

    Reading more of Kimhi's book, I am appreciating it, especially the way he explodes the Fregean paradigm over and over. I think Kimhi could help clear up the truth-functional confusions overflowing in <this thread>, which are all essentially based on the Fregean form-substitutability between (A & ¬B) and (B & ¬B).

    But another overlap between the child thread and Kimhi is as follows:

    In English we can deny in a manner that does not affirm the negation of any proposition, and this violates the way that propositional logic conceives of the LEM. In fact, going back to flannel’s thread, this shows that a contradiction in English need not take the form (A ^ ~A). In English one can contradict or deny A without affirming ~A.Leontiskos

    (Propositional logic seems to assume, prima facie, not only the commonsensical idea that C is neither A nor B, but also the deeply counterintuitive idea that C is neither ¬A nor ¬B. Usually if C is neither A nor B then it must be both ¬A and ¬B.)Leontiskos

    Compare Kimhi:

    [For the non-Fregean] The truth-connector is therefore seen as an expression of an operation. In fact, we can speak of truth and falsity operations, which are performed by . . . is true and . . . is false respectively. The assertion “p is true” is the same as “I truly think p.” There is no logical gap between these assertions. By contrast, the assertion “p is false” is not the same as “I truly think not-p.” Thus, truth and falsity operations are not symmetrical. However, they both apply to p and “A thinks p.” It is only in judgments about others that the use of . . . is false is required in addition to negation. — Kimhi, Thinking and Being, 93

    I would want to say that calling something false is to deny, not to negate, and that the asymmetry of affirmation and denial is well represented by Kimhi's final sentence here. Denial requires an interlocutor in a way that affirmation does not (and this interlocutor could also be merely represented). The corollary here seems to be that saying "p is false" is not the same as saying "not-p".

    At this point I would want to see denial and negation as distinguished according to what Kimhi says on 87 about Aristotle, where denial is an assertion "away from" and a negation is a "separation." But I would have to look into this more, and I know Kimhi will go on to speak about whether and in what way these are truly distinct.

    (I also really like Kimhi's work in unifying the various formulations of the PNC, a point that I have often found difficult to convey to those whose paradigm precludes it.)
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I’ve been working with some ideas in Irad Kimhi’s Thinking and Being. Much of what he talks about concerns the nature of the relationship between predication and truth-assertion. It occurred to me that “Existence is not a predicate” has some obvious parallels with “Truth is not a predication.” That is, neither existence nor truth add anything, conceptually, to what they appear to be predicating ‛existence’ and ‛truth’ of. I can say “A hundred thalers exist” but this adds nothing to the concept ‛a hundred thalers’; I can say “It is true that there are a hundred thalers on the table” but this adds nothing to the proposition ‛There are a hundred thalers on the table’.J

    Before looking at affirmation and negation I want to revisit this part of the OP now that I have a better understanding of the context.

    Colloquially, I want to say that both predications of truth and existence add something to the thing they are predicated of, for this thing is thought to be truth apt or existence apt. By thinking of such predicables as "apt" they are thought of as logically pre-true or pre-existing. This way of thinking seems to be what we now consider normal. Of course, it is possible to affirm such predications without the words "true" or "exists."

    Regarding the idea that existence is not a predicate, I think this is tied to standard compositional syllogistic. It would seem that judgments of existence are atomic in a way that is foreign to the combining and separating that constitutes logical acts, and therefore questions of existence are considered pre-logical (including being prior to logical predication). Formal logic is only concerned with existence qua logical function, as for example is seen by the existential quantifier. Existence, then, is treated as a kind of meta-predicate which is barred from being taken into per se consideration within the object language, given the way that it is not (logically) manipulable.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    From the Notre Dame review of Irad Khimi's Thinking and BeingRussellA

    Informative review. :up:
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    Again, what you have written shows multiple errors in your understanding of formal logic.Banno

    I see you are back to your schtick of non-responses. I will take this as a concession, and move on with the topic of the thread.
  • References for discussion of truth as predication?
    I'm sorry you can't see how it answers the OP. It is at least a beginning.Banno

    Okay, I grant that it is a beginning. My point is that formal considerations cannot answer the OP. "There are no true sentences that are not about some thing," is not a formal consideration. It is at best a presupposition of formal logics, not a conclusion. And whether every true sentence in a formal language is about existing things is a contentious topic.

    Existence, at least as qualification, ranges over individuals, while truth ranges over propositions. The OP asks about the relation between existence and truth.Banno

    As you pointed out:

    So generally, existence is not a first order predicate; nor is truth.Banno

    Again, the concepts of existence and truth are presuppositions of formal logic, not things that formal logic handles as first-order predicates. If we are considering and comparing the presuppositions of formal logic, then we have already taken a step beyond the object language.

    I might reply, in kind, that all (true) sentences can be parsed into propositional logic. "p". Therefore all true sentences are "formulable within formalism".Banno

    Even if they could, we know from Godel that not all true sentences can be shown true in propositional logic. By limiting ourselves to a formal context we limit our access to truth.

    Claiming that there is no explicit predication of existence or truth in formal logic is ignorant.Banno

    Claiming that the existential quantifier is equivalent to predicating existence is ignorant, and you know this. Your first post hedged on this sort of thing.

    This post will just rattle your cage. That is probably all that can be done until J can formulate a more explicit topic.Banno

    The topic is fine. The problem is your approach which sees everything as a nail, because your only tool is a hammer. If you want a thread on the internal workings of formal logic, maybe you are the one who needs to make a new thread. The idea that all questions can be answered by formal logic is daft, and provably false. It's high time you stopped pigeonholing every thread into your naive paradigm.

    -

    Logical systems are meant to capture correct human reasoning, and although each system fails in certain unique ways, all formal systems fail insofar as they are static and because of this lack recursion or reflexivity. One of the most unique properties of the human mind is its ability to think about its own thoughts, with a kind of infinite reflexivity. Formalized systems lack this "self-knowledge," so to speak. Godel used this fact to prove his incompleteness theorem, but it goes deeper than that. Thinkers who turn their gaze on truth qua truth or being qua being (as opposed to truth qua consistency or being qua stipulation) are using the muscle of the human mind that allows this infinite reflexivity. Trying to do such work while limiting oneself to a static formal system is to presume that the static system can demonstrate true statements about itself in this reflexive manner, and this presumption always turns out to be false. The static system will only ever arrive at faux truth and faux being, for the simplifications that are part and parcel of static systems preclude one from thinking about truth in itself or being in itself.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    - What I find in the U.S. is that Protestantism tends to be narrow minded, and those that reject this tradition desire to be broad minded, in much the way that a compressed spring reacts against its compression. This would help explain the reactionary attitude among ex-Protestants towards a kind of broad mindedness, even where no rational justifications are present. I've seen in this thread a fair amount of resentment towards any "narrowed" conception of Christianity, in one case even unto the remarkably unjustified conclusion that anyone who is not hateful is therefore somehow Christian. I grant that there are many people who are resentful towards narrow or exclusivist forms of Christianity, but I do not grant that this has anything to do with rigorous philosophical thinking. Along similar lines, many of the ways that strong inclusivity has crept into Christian theology can be directly traced to parents who had a vested interest in the idea that their children who left the faith did not in fact leave the faith. This was, for example, the motivational context for Rahner's "anonymous Christians."

    I don't know where you fall in any of this, but in general you tend to be a more precise thinker who does not carve out a position based on emotional reaction, so I do not assume that this trend would apply.
  • A Thought Experiment Question for Christians
    This is simply not true. This is why I pointed to the use of the term son in the Hebrew Bible. It is used many times both in the singular and plural. It often refers to kings and rulers and never means a god.Fooloso4

    Have you now reduced a historical question to an exegetical question? The number of ex-Protestants in this thread is not coincidental.

    The disciples, Paul, and other Jewish followers did not believe that Jesus was a god.Fooloso4

    Of course he did. Paul incorporates Jesus into the Hebrew Shema in places like 1 Corinthians 8:4-6. He says that Jesus bears the image of God in 2 Corinthians 4, and the name of God in Philippians 2.