we might consider here Nagel's ironic response to absurdity — Count Timothy von Icarus

Is this Thomas Nagel? Or Ernest? What passage do you have in mind?

Argument and discourse are only issues for those beings that have souls ― logic arises in the context of ethics. — Srap Tasmaner

Very good. I often tend to forget that, for Plato and Aristotle and probably for Kant too, there is an ethical motivation for arguing properly, one that has nothing to do with the more familiar "practical reason" or phronesis.

I especially like this passage: "I am in danger at this moment of not having a philosophical attitude about this, but like those who are quite uneducated, I am eager to get the better of you in argument." As Socrates goes on to say, convincing oneself is more important. This probably doesn't happen by a kind of arguing with oneself -- at least not in my case.

I ran across this in Gadamer's Truth and Method, just harking back to the OP if you're interested:

The question arises of the degree to which the dialectical superiority of reflective philosophy corresponds to a factual truth and how far it merely creates a formal appearance. . . . All these victorious arguments have something about them that suggests they are attempting to bowl one over. However cogent they seem, they miss the main point. In making use of them one is proved right, and yet they do not express any superior insight of any value. . . . Thus the formalism of this kind of reflective argument is of specious philosophical legitimacy. In fact it tells us nothing. We are familiar with this kind of thing from the Greek sophists, whose inner hollowness Plato demonstrated. It was also he who saw clearly that there is no argumentatively adequate criterion to distinguish truly between philosophical and sophistic discourse. — Gadamer, Truth and Method, pp. 308-9

Gadamer goes on to question a subset of reflexive argument, where the interlocutor points out logical or performative contradictions in, e.g., relativism or skepticism. But he is clearly talking about the reflexive nature of argumentation overall, and his doubts about it are similar to mine.

The final sentence I find especially intriguing. Leaving aside the question of whether he's right about Plato, I read Gadamer as saying to us: "No, you're wrong, philosophy is not characterized by a method or a discourse (or, perhaps, a formalism). What differentiates it from sophism is something else -- but there is a difference."

Evolutionary trends are beneficial for humanity, — Seeker25

This is the assumption I'm questioning, at least for purposes of argument. Perhaps you need to say more about what an evolutionary trend is? To avoid begging the question, I think you need to give a description of these trends in value-neutral terms, so we can decide for ourselves whether they must necessarily be beneficial for humanity.

What is rationality other than consistent thinking from some foundational premises or other? — Janus

OK, but specifying the premises, and determining how foundational they are, has been the longstanding task of philosophy, with no obvious right answer in sight. It's like saying, "Move the world? Sure, no problem, just give me a very large lever . . ."

Simply saying that X is a cup if and only if X is a cup or that X is a king if and only if X is a king is vacuous, and doesn't address any philosophical dispute. — Michael

That's not quite what Banno said. He said:

extensionally, X is a cup if and only if X is a cup. Extensionally, we are able to substitute salva veritate — Banno

I've bolded "extensionally" as the key term here. I think your debate is about what constitutes a cup (or a king) intensionally. Once we agree about that, picking out examples is relatively easy, but there's no vacuity involved. And no objects persist or cease to exist, depending.

Let’s grant your thesis that what you’re calling the evolution of the Earth contains important guidance for how humans should behave in order to flourish as a species. Let’s also agree that there are “trends” that can be discovered and used as the basis for that guidance.

Here is what I think you need to argue for:

1. Very few humans give much consideration to the flourishing of the species, and they need reasons – ethical reasons, presumably – why something so abstract should count more than their immediate practical concerns, which may be pursued both successfully and unethically.

2. The trends you’ve isolated are uniformly positive; they can be easily translated into familiar ethical precepts for humans. Isn’t that stacking the deck? Couldn’t we also talk about trends of destruction, suffering, and death? If we knew the end of Earth’s story, and it was one in which the positive trends prevailed, we might be justified in putting the current spotlight on them. But for all we know, the really significant trends are going to turn out to be the destructive ones.

I'm asking the kind of question intended just to prompt thinking, to make you wonder if the answer that comes immediately to mind is right, to make you pause and wonder what other answers might be available. — Srap Tasmaner

Excellent; my favorite kind of question. I guess I should have made it clear that all of that post was to be preceded with a big IF: IF philosophy proceeds rationally, and can give a definition of what rationality is, THEN all of these consequences seem to follow. I'm more unsure than perhaps you imagine about whether the IF is correct. I'm trying to paint a certain picture, which I think is very common to philosophy both now and historically, and then see clearly what the picture shows.

Another way to approach this, maybe a better one, is to call a halt to the "philosophy of philosophy" questions, stop worrying about whether and how phil. and rationality overlap, and simply focus on rationality alone. We'll still have problems about how to define it, but probably all the questions of the OP can be asked of rational discourse per se, without claiming anything one way or the other for philosophy.

If philosophy takes up the question of whether philosophy is rational, and even if it judges that it is, this is merely a result. It may even be descriptive of philosophy's practice in reaching that very conclusion, but it cannot be constitutive of that practice. — Srap Tasmaner

Philosophy is the activity that invents, for its own use, the very idea of rationality — Srap Tasmaner

I may not understand you completely, but isn't the second observation a partial answer to the problem posed by the first?

You're saying that, like mathematics, philosophy produces results which are conceptually distinguishable from phil. itself, understood as the process that led to the results. This seems relatively clear with the math example. But the moment you allow that a result within phil. can be "descriptive of philosophy's practice in reaching that very conclusion," you open the reflexive curtain that leads to the next stage, in which phil. gives itself the (rational) law, a la Kant. I don't know whether phil. invents rationality or discloses it within the world. But either way, we have the result that "philosophy is rational." To put it differently, we could say: Philosophy justifies its rationality at two levels of description -- by producing the "result" that phil. is rational, and also by demonstrating, in the very act of obtaining this result, that this is the only way philosophy can proceed.

One of J's first moves in the OP was to take philosophy and the sciences (and maybe history, I don't know) all together as "rational discourses," or something like that. I don't think that will work. I don't think philosophy can allow itself to be defined by some external perspective — Srap Tasmaner

This observation confuses two different things, doesn't it? On the one hand, we can certainly question whether phil. is constituted by something called "rational discourse," and whether it has that in common with other disciplines such as science. But on the other hand, would this be a case of phil. allowing itself to be defined by an external perspective? Perhaps it's up to phil. to define itself as "rational discourse" (or something else). Here we run up against the self-reflection again: Phil. is trying to look at itself, inquire about inquiry, and make a determination about its nature. The next quote directly follows from that:

(Such a move is even more untenable if you think of "rationality" as one of the areas philosophy is concerned with, and perhaps is authoritative on. Presumably then it would be up to philosophy to decide whether philosophy falls within its own purview, to decide whether this discourse is rational ― but not if it's already defined as "rational".) — Srap Tasmaner

That last clause is tricky. We're postulating a situation in which phil. is authoritative about two things: what rationality is, and whether philosophy is characterized, in a semi-definitional way, as being rational. So let's say that phil., armed with a concept of what rationality is, decides that its own discourse is indeed rational. I think your final clause is meant to suggest there's something dubious or circular going on. But why? There's nothing pernicious about defining something to be rational (though of course one may be wrong), and it's not the case that phil. has "already defined" itself as rational. That defining is precisely what is happening in the present moment of the postulated thought. It didn't happen earlier in the thought process, because it isn't analytic that the discipline that defines what rationality is must also be rational.

Interesting as all this may (or may not) be, your larger question about the marriage of philosophy and rationality, especially when it posits a certain kind of justification as essential to that rationality, seems like the important one.

And the "higher" thing again . . . , yeah, the metaphor just may not work here. Philosophy does something different from other disciplines, and that difference is procedural or formal as opposed to a question of subject matter -- that much I'd defend. My original question was, Is this formal something (aka the Q recursion) worth anything? Does it provide a perspective for thinking that is broader or more perspicuous than the other disciplines? I'm still nagged by the sense that it does, or should, but the discussion on this thread certainly highlights the difficulties of believing such a thing.

This would be a good OP idea. Philosophy as practice, and perhaps praxis. When I try to explain to friends why I do phil., I usually wind up talking in those terms, but not with much clarity.

Great, I'll spend some time on this, but for now, let me just note that The Shitty Terminations would be an excellent name for a band.

all it does is show that an awareness of said relevance isn't necessary to produce a desired result. — KantRemember

Your first post, I see -- welcome to the Forum!

If I understand you, you're saying that (for example) the acoustician could be unaware that Western music theory is indeed relevant to their work. Therefore, we need another criterion of relevance that doesn't involve awareness of said relevance.

That's a good point, and my example was loosely worded. Better to have said, "An acoustician conducts their research in complete independence of what theory may do with it, and it will not be possible to find any relevance for that theory to their work." Is it still clear that relevance isn't symmetric? I suppose this wording is slightly more deniable, because by shifting modal ground and talking about what is and isn't possible, we have to meet a higher bar. But let's not get caught up in extreme and/or unlikely cases. The idea was to question whether relevance is symmetric in a much more powerful and common way -- so that @fdrake's conclusion about what we've calling the Q recursion is true. I think his argument necessitates a near-perfect match of symmetries in order to go through. But perhaps he'll weigh in on this.

Insofar as Y exists, and X is relevant to Y, Y will always be relevant to X due to the connection X has with it. — KantRemember

Well, that's the question, and I think you need to do more than restate it as a conclusion. At issue would be "the connection X has with it" -- how does that show the relation must be symmetrical?

I don't think it follows that one discipline is more primordial/foundational than another based on the "what is your justification for this?" question's recursive nature. I will spell out why.

Asking the question "What's your justification for this?" is recursive. Call asking that question of an assertion X the function Q( X ), which I'll just assume maps to another assertion X'. Every assertion occurs in a context, and call the mapping from an assertion of X to its context C( X ). I'm going to leave 'context' undefined for now, and just assume that every assertion has a context of utterance that makes it understandable, and some rules that characterise that context.

Some contexts will have properties that make their rules philosophical. If a context is characterised by rules of philosophy - again stipulate that such rules are comprehensible and recognisable -, say that that context has the property Phil.

The quote says that for every statement X, there exists a number of recursions of Q^n ( X ), mapping an assertion to its justification, such that Q^n( X ) has a context C characterised by Phil. You can grant that, but you might wonder why such a thing would render philosophy the "top level". Roughly what this claim states is that asking for justification eventually terminates in philosophy, but there's no particular argument for the uniqueness of the termination. The statement in the quote construes Phil as the demarcation between a fixed set of Q and other sets. There's a question about the uniqueness of the fixed set - why does asking that question eventually lead to philosophy? — fdrake

First, just some housekeeping: We considered whether "Why?" was the actual recursive question, and raised some problems about that. But the way you've formulated it here is better, and still allows a robust sense of relevance, unlike the "What would Kant have thought of that?" example. So let's say that Q( X ) asks, "What is your justification for X?"

The idea, then, is that the Top-Level Theory would first have to show that the (undefined but described) C (context) is always philosophical, when the Q recursion takes place. You're willing to grant that, as am I, but the problem comes in the next bit, where we'd have to additionally show that there is a particular kind of uniqueness about this termination in philosophy. I have questions about that, and about uniqueness.

You point out the danger that we've done some definitional fast-footwork here. Philosophy (or the context Phil) is being construed as "the demarcation between a fixed set of Q and other sets." Does this mean that the fixed set of Q is only unique in this way? "Why does asking [the Q question] eventually lead to philosophy?" you want to know, and the suspicion is that is does so because we have defined it thus; there is no other reason.

Let me stop there and ask if I've understood you well enough, and if we're on the same page.

1 ) Take a philosophical claim X which does not have relevance to a claim in any discipline.
2 ) Take the collection of statements of which X has relevance to and call it Q.
3 ) Relevance is transitive, if X is relevant to Y, and Y is relevant to Z, then X is relevant to Z.
4 ) Relevance is symmetric, that is if X is relevant to Y, then Y is relevant to X.
5 ) Relevance is reflexive, X is relevant to X.
6 ) Relevance is an equivalence relation.
7 ) Then anything relevant to X cannot be relevant to any philosophical claim.
8 ) Then all of Q is not relevant to philosophy. — fdrake

I want to return to this loose end. Am I right that we can avoid the conclusion in (8) by denying (4), the symmetry of relevance? Apart from it being a good thing not to have to conclude (8), I think there are independent reasons for denying (4). Consider this example: The natural acoustic properties of tones are relevant to Western music theory, but the reverse isn't true. An acoustician can conduct their research in complete independence of what theory may do with it. The only way I see that we can get "relevance" to be symmetric here is to define it as such, so it means something like "possibility of making eventual connections." But that seems much too broad, and misses the interesting questions about why we care about relevance in the first place.

If there is an air of insubstantiality about this thread, it is because it is concerned with the philosophy of philosophy. — unenlightened

Leaving aside the possible insubstantiality for a moment, what do we make of the fact that there can even be a "philosophy of philosophy"? Isn't this an instance of the recursive, self-reflexive nature of phil. that I began with? Is there a "science of science"? A psychology of psychology? Interestingly, a literature of literature sounds more promising, or at least a literature about literature.

I didn't mean for this thread to get too wound up in definitions of what philosophy is, though I see how that's become an inevitable topic here. But "philosophy of philosophy" is reminiscent of one of the best definitions of phil. that I know: "inquiry about inquiry". This too captures the self-reflection, which the OP posited as perhaps important or characteristic of phil.

Insubstantial? Not to me. The danger is more of ambiguity, I would say -- people talking past each other because they don't share the same concepts and/or language.

the attempt to separate philosophy from other disciplines on the basis of any formal properties or logics is ill-conceived. I think this attempt to fix a sovereign standpoint for philosophy is the flip-side of the equally ill-conceived attempt to locate a sovereign ground for empirical truth in the ‘facts of nature’. In fact, the two tend to imply each other. — Joshs

I'm not as pessimistic as you are about this, but you make an important point: This question is inseparable from the other "foundational" question about the world, and its stability as an object for inquiry. (Habermas v. Gadamer comes in here as well: I read Habermas as optimistic here, Gadamer less so. Not that either would talk about anything being "sovereign.")

I don’t believe there is any domain philosophy tackles that science can’t venture into. I think we agree it’s just a matter of style of expression.
— Joshs

Really? Unless you include both math and metaphysics within science, I don't see how this could be true
— J

What do you mean by metaphysics? You dont consider a scientific paradigm to be a metaphysical stance? And given that logic and mathematics have been developed by both philosophers and scientists, I would say that their status can’t easily be placed with respect to the latter disciplines. — Joshs

Perhaps the disagreement hinges on "venture into." Taken loosely, sure: Science and phil. can venture at will. But no, I don't think that the scientific paradigm is an item within any scientific discipline. It is part of philosophy of science -- a fuzzy boundary, but a boundary nonetheless. As for math, same thing: When a physicist expands a mathematical concept, they're doing math. When they apply the math to QM, they're doing physics. And same comment -- yes, it's fuzzy, but I think we have an idea of the difference between a language and an interpretation.

We don’t first concoct linguistic concepts and then impose them on the world. . . etc. — Joshs

With respect, I don't think there's any common agreement about this. The relationship among language, concepts, and the world is highly contested, and always has been.

To start, could you run "Q recursion" by me again? — T Clark

Yes, sure. Read fdrake's post here: , and his exchanges with me that followed. The Q recursion would be some formalization of a reiterated "Why?" question that, he suggests, may be what I was calling "an argumentative gotcha!" The follow-up on a formalization of "relevance" is also important, I think. I'm still working on a reply to that.

Really, I agree too. That's why I said that I was "being hard on OL folk" by claiming they lack nuance or subtlety. What they often do, though, is claim, or at least imply, that anything outside OL philosophy is therefore a misunderstanding about words, or about meaningful concepts. There doesn't seem room for nuance and subtlety except within the strict parameters of OL phil.

Anyway, the point was to push back on the idea that any philosophy could be somehow purged of being nuanced and subtle. The OL comment was half-kidding.

I think it might be better to ask first why we might think the interaction of philosophy and other discipline might be particularly revelatory. What do we expect an examination of those interactions to show? — Srap Tasmaner

Yes, good. I was suggesting only one possibility, the one that shows phil. on the defense, interacting with other disciplines to deny assimilation into one of them. Another familiar picture is "philosophy as critic," stepping in to adjudicate matters of logic and clarity. I'm not crazy about that one, though sometimes it's helpful.

The general point that "discourse" focuses on "why" and "how" questions about what philosophy does, is a good one.

If so, then as Srap pointed out, I've stacked the deck heavily against, e.g., the Freudian who wants to opt out of that sort of discourse.
— J

As I said earlier, he holds that theories of motivation require justification, so he hasn't opted out. — Leontiskos

In the example Srap imagined, he did opt out. Rather than supplying the justification for his theories of motivation, he puts on his Freudian hat and says, "Very interesting . . .Tell me more about the sorts of occasions you feel the need to justify yourself" or some such. The distinction matters, because what the Freudian holds, and would have to defend, is different from what he has to do. I would say that, if he continues in reason-giving, then you're right, he's doing philosophy with us. But what he may hold to be true is different from what he may or may not choose to justify. If he doesn't make that choice, then . . . well, I want to say he's no longer doing philosophy, but certainly others on this thread would disagree.

Notice that this speaks to an earlier concern of Srap's, that my example with the Freudian was hopelessly unrealistic. And indeed, I was imagining the Freudian as absolutely committed to responding to the philosopher with yet more reasons and justifications -- so much so, that he'd abide by the decisions of a Rational Referee. My point was only that, if he does that, he has not succeeded in refuting philosophy on its own terms. But he may not do that at all, and it's an open question whether his style of challenge has its own merits, and if so, what they are.

Gotta run now but I'll catch everyone later . . .

Now that I think about it, I don't think the ideas we bounce around in philosophy need to be all that nuanced and subtle. — T Clark

I'm all for clarity and simplicity, and it annoys me greatly that philosophical genius doesn't always go along with a good writing style, especially in translation. But can you think of anyone other than the OL philosophers whose ideas are not nuanced and subtle? And even that is being hard on the OL folk. Or maybe we have a whole different idea of what a nuance or a subtlety is?

Regardless of whether idealism or realism is true, our phenomenological experience of the world would remain unchanged. — Sirius

This reminds me of the issue raised (most recently by David Chalmers in "Reality+") about virtual worlds. There are some strong arguments to the effect that, if simulated universes are possible, then we are almost certainly living in one. For reasons that are roughly similar to the ones you give about idealism and realism, this shouldn't make any phenomenological difference. Yet this insouciance is extremely difficult to believe. If I did come to accept that the world in which I exist was simulated by a powerful but non-deistic intelligence, perhaps somewhere in the future, I think I'd be rocked to the core. I think I would indeed question every basic assumption I have. And yet . . . on the merits, it shouldn't make a difference to a single thing. This is an example of how philosophy can pose a stark choice: Either I am deeply mistaken about what does make a difference, and must revise my ideas accordingly, or philosophy is wrong in believing it's shown me that the difference between X and Y doesn't matter. This could all apply the realism/idealism question as well.

See my response to @Wayfarer, and the long response above. It would be my hope that we could discover a path to wisdom that is strictly philosophical.

@srap tasmaner, @joshs, @leontiskos, @fdrake, @t clark, @wayfarer, @moliere and apologies to anyone I've mistakenly ovelooked.

It looks to me that there are three positions in question, starting from the OP and moving in very interesting ways through the thread. (And let me remind folks that my OP really was a kind of test-drive of what I called the Top-Level Thesis about philosophical discourse. I'm not personally committed to a particular take on "highest" and I wanted my frequent expressions of dubiety to show this.)

So:

1. Does philosophy have at its disposal a special kind of recursive ability, by which it can fend off challenges about its legitimacy? As far as I can see, only @fdrake has tried to give this some formal rigor, and I'm still working on a response to his thoughts about it. I know that @Leontiskos and perhaps others have their doubts about the use of formalism here, and that leads to . . .

2. If we can isolate the precise nature of what it is that philosophy seems to do -- this sort of jujitsu move against attempts to assimilate it into other disciplines -- what will we have achieved? Let's say we can find a formally precise description of this. Is there anything that tells us this is what rational inquiry is? That this is what the philosophical use of rationality consists of? That other disciplines can't do the same thing?

3. Even more strongly, what gives me or anyone the right to assert that any version of rational inquiry, whether formalized or not, is what philosophy does exclusively? I think we're all comfortable with saying that philosophy often does this, or has historically done this, but do we have a warrant for saying that this kind of discourse is definitional of phil.? My OP allowed that assumption; what I wanted to question was the worth of the Q recursion, not whether phil. is inherently rational, and not whether there might be other understandings of what it means to be rational.

I also want to note a couple of points that @Srap Tasmaner raised. The first concerns the role of justification in phil. It does seem clear to me that we can know, and perhaps even state, any number of truths that we can't justify rationally. (We may be able to justify that they aren't irrational, but that's different.) Am I assuming, in the OP, that the business of phil. is to provide rational justifications? If so, then as Srap pointed out, I've stacked the deck heavily against, e.g., the Freudian who wants to opt out of that sort of discourse. We can all agree that the Freudian is doing something different with his "Very interesting . . . " response, but am I entitled to say that it's no longer philosophy? If I say this, do I need a better reason than "He's opting out of rational justification"? Or do I have an additional argument at my disposal that shows that this is precisely why he's no longer doing phil.? Obviously this has great significance for how we're going to value the Q recursion.

Srap's second point follows from this. He said, with disappointment, that what seemed to him the interesting issues raised by the OP never really got discussed. He saw most of the thread as preliminary thus far. I agree. I think what happened is that we all quickly realized that we didn't have unanimity about the Q recursion, and so one of the key assumptions of the TLT -- that there was this highest rung that phil. could avail itself of -- needed debate and clarification. Just as one "for instance": If any discipline can in principle offer its own recursive refutation of its practices, then the whole premise of the TLT collapses.

For me, the deeper interest here is good old "thinking and being." The OP ended by bringing in Hegel and his dialectical concept of refutations, as an example of how an innocent recursion might point us to some very important truths. This was a gesture. But if we can get ourselves on some kind of firm footing about the nature (or at least one nature) of phil. discourse, we could then ask what this teaches us about how thought and reality may mirror each other. Or not, of course!

I have some thoughts about all of this, but wanted to try laying this out first, just to see if it makes sense as a summary.

A few quick, specific responses:

my primary argument is against setting philosophy up as some sort of pinnacle of human inquiry. I don't see it as all that special. For me, it is an exercise in self-awareness - more a practice than a study. — T Clark

This is the question of the first part of the OP, and your answer may well be true. What we want to know, I think, is whether phil.'s lack of specialness is because a) the Q recursion isn't special to phil. at all, or b) this kind of recursive argumentation is indeed merely a gotcha! generated by a type of formalism we can look at and understand.

In my view, philosophy in its most general sense refers to a mode of discourse melding comprehensiveness, unity, and explicitness. — Joshs

I like the sound of this, but I have to ask for more clarity. A great novel can be shown to meld all three of these qualities, but does that make it philosophy? What about a beautiful prayer? Perhaps you would say that the missing element in both examples is explicitness. What, then, are the discursive tools by which explicitness comes to be? I'm nudging you toward taking the "rational inquiry" idea a bit more seriously. And let's remember that rationality is not univocal. Two of the philosophers I've gotten the most from, Gadamer and Habermas, spent their lives trying to formulate better versions of what it means to be rational, versions that would provide an escape from the crushing scientific rationalism of the 19th century.

I don’t believe there is any domain philosophy tackles that science can’t venture into. I think we agree it’s just a matter of style of expression. — Joshs

Really? Unless you include both math and metaphysics within science, I don't see how this could be true.

The final thing I find interesting about these quoted responses is that they all shy away from the idea that phil. is distinguished by its subject matter. We may disagree about whether phil. is a practice, a discourse, an exercise, a style of expression, but no one seems to believe phil. has a subject all its own. Is that relevant to the question of whether or how phil. could be "highest"? (Or maybe that's why it's a particularly appealing form of bullshit!)

I'm interested in the difference between your descriptions of philosophy and psychology. You describe philosophical thought as united by a "mode of discourse," that features certain attributes, whereas psychology is characterized by "a set of presuppositions." This is quite similar to an idea @Leontiskos was talking about earlier, that the lack of presuppositions may be what makes phil. unique. Are you also trying to make this distinction?

Darn, I was just hitting my stride! I hope whatever you write next will continue the themes of phil. as justification, and also the idea that there was something deeper I was reaching for in my OP, with all the subsequent discussion being preliminary to that. I think that's correct, though preliminary discussion (about what, if anything, it is that philosophical discourse does specially) is necessary before we can ask, as I did, what this might say about being, a la Hegel.

have you considered that you might be misconstruing what you've discovered?

What you describe could also be taken as showing that philosophy is a trap: inquiry is in danger of getting stuck there, no longer producing knowledge. (Which, let's be honest ...) — Srap Tasmaner

Absolutely. That's why I commended @Wayfarer for bringing up aporia. We have to keep this tension in mind -- that what we'd like to believe is phil.'s superpower might in fact be its downfall. But again, until we first get clear about what this superpower is supposed to be, we can't know how to proceed about this.

Cool question! In part they're scare-quotes; I don't want to be seen as naively endorsing the idea of "highest" as "best" or "most perspicuous" that is often associated with philosophy. But also it was an attempt to capture the ambiguity of "highest," which I discuss in the OP. "Highest" can mean what I just wrote -- "best," more or less -- or it can mean "up a level, beyond which there are no more levels," without comment on value. I raised the possibility that phil. discourse is only highest in this sense.

There should be a typographical symbol that would mark ambiguity.

Lots here. I'll have to do this piecemeal due to time constraints, but thanks for giving so much thought to this, despite finding some of the set-up uncongenial.

the initial pitch was for philosophy as the ultimate backstop or bedrock, because philosophy can force any discipline ― or even any claim ― into a philosophical discussion, but once there, any further probing and questioning is just more philosophy. Among the many overlapping ideas in this setup was that philosophical ideas are simply impervious to any but philosophical counters. — Srap Tasmaner

Yes, though it leaves out an important emphasis -- that philosophy engages in this kind of discourse in a context of self-defense, so to speak. I wasn't thinking so much about the philosophical gadfly who keeps pulling their interlocutor back into phil. disputes, though of course we all know phil. is capable of this. Rather, the idea was to point up what seemed to me to be phil.'s unique ability to refute explanations or dissolution-by-translation into another discipline or discourse. So the particular "forcing" going on here is the insistence that phil. can only be challenged* with more phil.

*(and I think we're going to see that the nature of what counts as a "challenge" is critical)

Only now it turns out you don't intend to show that this is so, but enforce it, by fiat. You just define the discussion as philosophical from the start. — Srap Tasmaner

I don't think this is right. There may indeed be an appeal to definition going on, but not one I'm making up. Or maybe I don't understand you. Would you say that the Freudian "Very interesting..." response is philosophical? I assumed we would all agree that it wasn't, on any common understanding of what we do. Isn't it an attempt to launch a dissolution of philosophy? It avoids what would otherwise be what @Leontiskos noted was a performative contradiction of sorts, since if the Freudian challenges phil. on the level of reason or ideas, he's doing more phil.

So this was indeed the key word in the original post:

And what is your justification for asserting that such an explanation is true?
— J — Srap Tasmaner

This is a good observation. It seems possible that by equating phil. with rational justification, we produce the puzzle we're worrying about.

and this word [justification] is the private property of philosophy. — Srap Tasmaner

I hear your indignation, but I'm not clear on what there is to be indignant about. Are you saying that there are other relevant (in this context) ways of justifying a position that are not philosophical? Or is it that philosophy ought to be so much more than justification?

Have to stop here for now.

When you try to make substantial metaphysical points with a formalism or set theory, you are baptizing the formalism and the set theory into metaphysics. It is natural enough that by limiting your thought to such forms you limit your conclusions to formalisms. — Leontiskos

I prefer to think of it as using a powerful tool to help make discriminations among ideas that are often too vague in English, or at least too vague in an OP by me :smile: . I can't speak for @fdrake, of course, but I don't see any of this as necessarily limiting anyone's thought, unless fdrake or his evil twin were to come along and claim that this is the only way of understanding the issue I raised in the OP. Which I don't think he has. My own interest in the question does indeed go beyond what I think formalism is likely to be able to show, but we need to understand what that is first.

there are many other useful
discourses WITHIN philosophy besides that of rationally generated consensus and the primacy of rationality itself. — Joshs

Well, that's the question, isn't it? I suspect you're right (emphasis on the word useful) but we're still left wondering about this peculiar reflexive or recursive character of what's generally thought of as "rational inquiry." Does a broadening of what counts as philosophical discourse change the picture? I'll shortly try to respond to @Srap Tasmaner's interesting concerns about this, and whether it all comes down to philosophy understood as justification.

And there is no natural science which constrains physics — Srap Tasmaner

Yet! It would be interesting to see what the state of play is in 2224.

IE, there must be something in the nature of questioning itself which allows it to alchemize any input into relevant philosophical concepts. And we'd need to put that in as a constraint on the series of questions to ensure the termination. What would it be? — fdrake

Here again, a good way to re-ask the central question. And it relates to your post about relevance. I bolded the phrase above because it's that "something" that the TLT wants to rescue from triviality. I'm not yet sure that "Why?" is uniquely important here, but now I understand better what you're doing with it. More to follow.

I don't believe they are. I stipulated them based on my intuitions. — fdrake

Thanks. Now I'll chew on it.

So this isn't exactly a logical entity, it's not disconnected from the world, but since Anscombe was a student of Wittgenstein, it's not something that comes with a theory. — frank

Must it necessarily lack a theory? Reading your description of it, I was thinking that "you just do" is giving up too easily. Do you know of any philosophers who have accepted Anscombe's basic idea of the self and attempted to place it within a larger context?

Aye. It's an argument that if you make philosophy the most expansive and the most foundational discipline, you end up making philosophy able to be done without philosophical reasoning and also have its foundations refuted by non-philosophical reasoning. — fdrake

It's the end of the world! :wink:

Well, not quite that bad, but I think we have good reason to want to draw back from this conclusion. Before I talk about that, could you say whether your premises concerning relevance relations (3 - 7) are accepted logical truths? I don't know alternative logics well enough myself.

My understanding of the thread was that philosophy does something different from science. What it does different might turn out to be not so interesting ― and we have some idea in what sense it might not be interesting, if it's just a cheap "gotcha" ― or it might be interesting, only it's hard to characterize what it might be doing that's interesting. — Srap Tasmaner

Yes, that's a good summary.

But now you're talking about reduction, which I didn't think was on the table, and which surely we don't want to get into here. — Srap Tasmaner

Reduction is a whole other mess, agreed. But let me try to say why I don't think my question about the discourse of chemistry was a question about reduction. I gave that example in response to your suggestion that many other disciplines have the same "super-power" that philosophy has:

Their super-power, if any, lies in their ability to defend themselves from challenges that would redirect their discourse into other disciplines. — J

So, if chemistry had this ability, it would be able to respond to a physicist's attempt at reduction using only the arguments available to it qua chemistry. That's what I was questioning, and I don't think it matters whether reductionism is right or not. The point concerns methods of argumentative defense, not the truth of a particular thesis.

Sure, I see what you're saying. IRL, that's quite likely what would happen, and as you point out, a Marxist or an evolutionary biologist could make the same sort of response.

What I was imagining, and trying to describe, was a refereed situation, so to speak, where each of the interlocutors agrees to the rules of rational philosophical discourse. Playing by these rules, the philosopher always trumps, and always wins. If the bearded Viennese tries his "Interesting. Do you always . . . " response, the referee steps in and says, "Out of bounds. Please answer the question."

By comparing these two scenarios, we may learn something about the issue at hand. The claim of the TLT seems to be, "There is no rational path down which philosophy may be drawn (and dissolved) by some other discipline, and we know what the rules are for rationality." Does the Freudian get to claim that his path is rational, that we are wrong about knowing the rules? I still say that he can't. What would the claim sound like? How would it avoid being further philosophy? Now perhaps he can say something like, "No, I can't explain or justify my claim, but I can show you how it's true." And he can then point, and describe, much in the way that a painter might show us images that move us and convince us, without ever making rational claims about anything. In short, the Freudian may be right, but what he can't do is justify a claim to being right, without engaging in more philosophy.

What should we say about this response? I find it unobjectionable, because it doesn't touch the TLT. There are many other important and useful discourses besides the rational/philosophical. They may even lead to vital truths. (I believe religious discourse is an example of this.) Anyone who engages in those discourses is free to forswear the discourses referred to by the TLT. But that doesn't challenge the TLT itself. The puzzle remains: Is this trick or knack of philosophical discourse something worth valuing, and pondering over? Or is it just a fact about recursion, of little further interest?

go with Gauss
— Srap Tasmaner

Hmmm. Is this how Catholic mathematicians say "See you later"? — Srap Tasmaner

Oh for Gödel's sake.

Yes, you've picked a discipline in which the distinction is very hard to draw. To this day we find philosophers challenging a position as "mere psychology," with no great clarity as to what that might mean. I think this is in part because so much of the psychology of perception and emotion is "done" using language that overlaps with philosophical discourse.

(I read the M-P a long time ago; good time for a reread)