Can you at least see my issue here? The conflict of terms?
If a ‘use value’ becomes a ‘Value’ (commodity) then the ‘use value’ is covered up. So is he saying that both ‘Value’ is useless because ‘use value’ is out of sight, and/or that a kind of ‘unpotentialised use value’ is useless, because it is again out of sight.
For instances of these confusions:
So is also the establishment of social measures for the quantities of these useful objects.
The diversity of these measures of commodities originates in part from the diverse nature of the objects to be measured, and in part from convention.
The usefulness of a thing makes it a use-value.
But this usefulness does not dangle in midair. Conditioned by the physical properties of the body of the commodity, it has no existence apart from the latter.
The body itself of the commodity, such as iron, wheat, diamond, etc., is therefore a use-value or a good.
This characteristic of a commodity does not depend on whether appropriating its useful properties costs more or less labor.
Pay particular attention to the bold. I am saying there no thing that is wholly absent of ‘usefulness’ - there is no ‘useless’ item. As this is a key concept I have instant doubts about where this is going already as there is a lack of precision - repeated later with over simplification regarding skilled labour.
Also:
The commodity is at first an exterior object, a thing, which by its properties satisfies human wants of one sort or another.
The nature of such wants, whether they arise, for instance, from the stomach or from
imagination, makes no difference.
Nor does it matter here how the object satisfies these human wants, whether directly as object of consumption, or indirectly as means of production.
Can anyone suggest anything that doesn’t have the potential to satisfy ’human wants or needs’? It’s a chimera.
The last bold part does seem to suggest ‘self-entertainment’- but I’m being generous. The thrust of my point here is that producing something without the intent of it being open to the public as a utility doesn’t take away the ‘use-value’ as Marx defines. Yet as we’ve seen he is happy to later talk about something as ‘useless’ - which we both seem to assume means an object absent of ‘use value’ and further still he states that the ‘labour is not labour’.
The contradiction is well hidden I’ll grant that. I’m not against contradictions - I’ve read Kant - but these contradictions are presented in the same section it is not the case that he’s set up different sets of limitations and then set them out parallel to each other.
The problems continue:
Every useful thing, such as iron, paper, etc., is to be looked at under two aspects: quality and quantity.
‘Quality’ here means ‘utility’. The is the ongoing problem of human existence in many ways and an age old question. How to measure different ‘qualities’ against each other. To then dress up ‘quality’ as ‘utility’ is to say the quality of something has nothing to do with aesthetics as it is all about how an object can be utilized not about any direct consideration of ‘qualities’ just practical functions irrespective of any human sense of aesthetic taste.
I assume all he is trying to say here is that the ‘utility’ (‘use-value, not ‘quality’) of resources are Valued (as in ‘Value’) by how they function the production of a commodity. The ‘utility’ for every item conceivable is always present, yet not always fulfilled - by ‘wants or needs’ due to ignorance or knowledge.
There is NO ‘useless’ resource present in opposition to ‘use-value’. It’s a value dichotomy. There most certainly are unfulfilled ‘use-values’. The fulfilled ‘use-values’ inevitably embody an object with value regardless of whether this ‘value’ extends beyond the personal sphere into the public.
To return to the first quote and provide another translation:
But this usefulness does not dangle in midair. Conditioned by the physical properties of the body of the commodity, it has no existence apart from the latter.
The utility of a thing makes it a use value. But this utility is not a thing of air. Being limited by the physical properties of the commodity, it has no existence apart from that commodity.
This is wrong. There is ‘existence’ within the conscious human being. We don’t merely act upon the world as an exterior influence, we actively impose ourselves upon it. The ‘utility’ of resources don’t jump out to us like sentient beings. We have an intent, a sense of time and place, and go to play in the word of things directed partly by our aesthetic disposition not entirely as reactionary beings absent of agency.
The whole premise is actually based on this thought. We brought resources into a position where we can refer to them as ‘commodities’ to be exchanged, improved and engaged with. We simply have a drive to utilise our environment and the ‘Value’ is an aspect of measuring ‘efficiency’. Even this barely touching on the ‘utility’ of human interactions outside of what many consider ‘economics’. From what I’ve read Marx has done no more than sharpen the capitalist sword rather than offer a new means of engagement in the sphere of ‘economics’ - maybe I was expecting way too much
:)
Anyway, maybe I’m not discussing what you wished to discuss in this thread? Either way I think my time would be better spent keeping my thoughts mostly to myself for now as I work my way through the text. I like the line of questions he presents even if I find the presentation wanting.