Can you set out why or how the analogy does not work? In what salient way is logic not a game of stipulation?Logic is not just a stipulative game, like chess. The analogy doesn't work. — Leontiskos
Why doesn't it matter how you quantify or which logic you use? Isn't that of the utmost import? That there are multiple logics does not imply that they are all of equal utility or applicability. Propositional logic will be of little help with modal issues, and modal logic might be overkill for propositional problems. Some art is involved in the selection of a logic to use.And as I said, if you embrace logical pluralism then it doesn't matter how you quantify or which logic you use, for everything is stipulation and no one stipulation is any better than any other. — Leontiskos
What? For example, how could a "qualitative" difference in domain in a first-order logic lead to a difference in quantification? The quantification rules are defined extensionally....within a single logic qualitative differences of domain reflect qualitatively different understandings of quantification — Leontiskos
Seems to me that such equivocation is still about the domain. I think I showed that , above. Can you show otherwise?Quantifiers are not subject to second-order equivocation; therefore QV fails — Leontiskos
Those quantifiers are introduced differently, and as the paper "Quantifier Variance Dissolved" notes that provides a strong argument for a form quantifier variance without a reduction of quantifier meaning to underlying entity type it quantifies over, and without committing yourself to the claim that there's a whole bunch of equally correct logics for the purposes of ontology. — fdrake
the sort of assertions you get when you try to squeeze a big set of phenomena into a tiny box of explanation. — Count Timothy von Icarus
The paradigmatic example is existential generalisation, f(a)⊢∃(x)f(x). The claim is that Universal Instantiation, Universal generalisation, Existential Instantiation and Existential generalisation have differing uses in different logics. And indeed, these do vary in form from one logic to another.No doubt the inferential role of “there is” or “exists” in natural language is more complex than the role of “∃” in formal logical languages, but the formal-syntactic role of “∃” provides a tidy approximation of the informal inferential role of “exists” or “there is” in English. The expression “there is” is an existential quantifier, in English, roughly because for name “a” and predicate “F”, from “a is F”, “there is an F” follows; and if a non-“a” claim follows from “a is F”, with no auxiliary assumptions made about “a”, then that same thing also follows from “there is an F”. Expressions that obey this role unrestrictedly, for all names and predicates that could be introduced into the language, express the language’s unrestricted concept of existence.
We argue that ∃ always has this role, as it invariably has the function of ranging over the domain and signaling that some, rather than none, of its members satisfy the relevant formula. Yet the quantifier-variance theorist requires ∃ to have multiple meanings. — Quantifier Variance
I'd be surprised if there were a substantive difference.I think we are largely on common ground then. — Count Timothy von Icarus
I dunno OLP heads, "is" sure crops up in a lot of language games with different grammars. Almost as if there are different uses of it! — fdrake
This bit of history only partially answers the question. It remains that we might move bishops anywhere we like on the board, but to do so would be to cease playing chess, or at the least to play it differently. There is a way in which the answer to "Why do Bishops move diagonally?" is, that is just how the game is played, that its what we do. Seeking further explanation is redundant.This piece originally began life as a symbol of the elephants in the Indian army. It's original movement was 2 squares diagonally in any direction. It was a piece of only moderate power.
It was only when the game was carried to Europe that it's fortunes began to improve. The Europeans were not as familiar with the elephant as the Indians so they needed to change the piece to something that people in Europe could relate to. The church was very powerful in Europe when these changes were going on. It's influence on political life in the Middle Ages was recognized when the piece became a Bishop.
The Europeans also wanted to speed the game up as they found it laboriously slow. The Bishop was one of a number of pieces to see it's powers increase, gaining unlimited range on the diagonals.
What? I can't make anything of this, nor much of what follows. Talk of nominalists and universalists seems oddly anachronistic.if one attempts to quantify over all mammals but omits unicorns because they were not known to exist (or vice versa) then a quantitative difference of domain results in a merely artificial difference of quantifier-qua-extension. But if one attempts to quantify over all things but omits universals because they are a nominalist (cf. QVD 295) then a qualitative difference of domain results in a substantial difference of quantifier-qua-extension. — Leontiskos
Sure. I don't believe that what I have said implies otherwise. language games are embedded in the world. What was novel in their introduction is the idea that we do things to the world by using words.Use itself doesn't float free of the rest of the world. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Now how exactly do we manage that? Attributing a predicate to an identified individual looks straightforward, but in ordinary life we only reach for the existential quantifier in the absence of such an individual. (One of you drank the last beer. Someone left these footprints. There's something really heavy in this box.) — Srap Tasmaner
What's my point?What is your point? — Srap Tasmaner
Can you think of an edge case where it's not clear whether something counts as a berry? — Srap Tasmaner
As it happens, this is what the thread should be about. — Srap Tasmaner
What I am objecting to is an explanation that seems to say that prior to an act of counting there is nothing that affects how counting is done. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Pretending 8/2 = 5 won't get you very far. You will not be able to divide the berries between two people fairly. It will be functionally inadequate. It won't work.what explains this? — Count Timothy von Icarus
If some society somehow stipulated that 8/2 = 5, we tend to feel we could give them a good demonstration of why this is not the correct way to do division. — Count Timothy von Icarus
The attempt to reduce mathematics to 'speech acts' is inadequate to account for the 'unreasonable effectiveness of mathematics in the natural sciences' — Wayfarer
There is a bit more going on.But just stating the trivial fact that "numbers are something humans use," or "words are things we say," as if this pivot to activity makes the explanation an unanalyzable primitive strikes me as essentially a non-explanation. — Count Timothy von Icarus
It is unclear that there is a coherent way of formulating any such quantification and the resulting maximal domain. If the maximal domain is a set, then unrestricted quantification would require quantifying over everything, and there would have to be a set of everything, including, in particular, a set of all sets, among other inconsistent totalities, since all of these things are in the scope of an unrestricted quantifier: everything is in its scope, after all! But that is clearly inconsistent. — p.294
Maybe the proponent would take each person, sit them in the same room, and ask them to evaluate the sentence < Ǝx(R(x) ^ A(x)) > (“There exists an x such that x is in the room and x is an apple”). In the corner of the room is a painting by Cézanne, and within the painting is depicted a paradigmatic red apple. One person says that the sentence is true and the second person says that it is false. Upon inspection we realize that the disagreement is not over whether the painting depicts an apple, but is instead over whether the quantifier captures it as an apple. Specifically, it is over whether an imaged thing exists through the image. This is an extensional evidence for quantifier equivocation, different from fdrake's intensional evidence. The paper itself admits this possibility. It begins an argument: — Leontiskos
If you want to say "nouns are a human invention," that seems like fair game. But there has to be some sort of explanation of their usefulness and development across disparate, isolated societies.Now, if you want to say "numbers are a human invention," that seems like fair game. But there has to be some sort of explanation of their usefulness and development across disparate, isolated societies. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Another point that seems to need reinforcing is the nature of quantification. If our domain is {a,b,c} then "U(x)fx" is just "fa & fb & fc"; and "∃(x)fx" is just "fa v fb v fc". If the domain changes to {a',b',c'} then "U(x)fx" is just "fa' & fb' & fc'"; and "∃(x)fx" is just "fa' v fb' v fc'". That is, the definition of each quantification doesn't change with the change in domain; but remains a conjunct or disjunct of every item in the domain. — Banno
...quantifier variance is not meant to entail a multiplicity of logical systems, each with its own quantifiers and conception of validity, but rather it requires that, within a single logic, there should be multiple (existential) quantifiers operating differently. And so, logical pluralism should not be equated with quantifier variance, as having a choice between logical systems is not the same as having a choice of quantifier meaning within a system of logic. — Quantifier Variance Dissolved
And the conclusion to that section,What all of this illustrates, is that in tying quantification to existence, two distinct roles are ultimately conflated:
(a) The quantificational role specifies whether all objects in the domain of quantification are being quantified over or whether only some objects are.
(b) The ontological role specifies that the objects quantified over exist.
These are fundamentally different roles, which are best kept apart. By distinguishing them and letting quantifiers only implement the quantificational role, one obtains an ontologically neutral quantification. Ontological neutrality applies to both the universal and the particular quantifier (that is, the existential quantifier without any existential, ontological import). — Quantifier Variance Dissolved
However, once again, no variance in any quantifier is involved.
Knowing what mathematics is seems like one of the biggest philosophical questions out there. Not to mention that a number of major breakthroughs in mathematics have been made while focusing on foundations, so it hardly seems like a useless question to answer either. — Count Timothy von Icarus
Good questions. The property analogy will only go as far as "counts as..." or "as if...". And as I've said, we do treat numbers to quantification, equivalence and predication - all nice neat uses of "is". Numbers are in many ways not like property.Why this huge difference? — Count Timothy von Icarus
Yep An incipient notion. It probably relates to Austin's treatment of abstracts in Are There A Priori ConceptsWith all respect to Banno, the formula "Numbers are something we do" could use some clarification. — J
Austin carefully dismantles this argument, and in the process other transcendental arguments. He points out first that universals are not "something we stumble across", and that they are defined by their relation to particulars. He continues by pointing out that, from the observation that we use "grey" and "circular" as if they were the names of things, it simply does not follow that there is something that is named. In the process he dismisses the notion that "words are essentially proper names", asking "...why, if 'one identical' word is used, must there be 'one identical object' present which it denotes". — Wiki article
I'm going to maintain that the domain, and hence the ontology, one way or another, is stipulated. And see where that leads.So on to ontological pluralism? — J
Nothing whatever to do with Cartesian dualism — Wayfarer
I'm not so enamoured with causes. Nor do I take evolutionary explanations as inherently fundamental.All activities have causes, right? — Count Timothy von Icarus
I'm thinking that in order to make explicit quantifier variance we would need a case in which it is clear that the difference between two languages was not found in the domain, but in their quantification.I don't think we've laid to rest, or explained, the doubts that Hale and Wright express. — J
This is pretty clearly a case in which one language has in its domain a thing which is a compound of this pencil and your left ear, and the other does not.I may say something true when I assert ‛there exists something which is a compound of this pencil and your left ear’, and in another, you may say something true when you assert ‛there is nothing which is composed of that pencil and my left ear’. — Bob Hale and Crispin Wright
I’m not arguing in favor of it. I’m asking why it’s even necessary. I’m questioning the claim that ‘according to our best epistemic theories, mathematical knowledge ought not to be possible.’ It obviously is possible, so what does that say about the shortcomings of ‘our best epistemic theories’? — Wayfarer
I've tried to have you fill this out explicitly. If what you say here were so we would have a neat case of quantification variance to work with - the difference between real and existent. But i do nto think you have been able to proved a coherent account.My intuition about the matter is simply that numbers are real but that they don't exist. — Wayfarer
Seems an odd position for you to be defending.Quine’s belief that we should defer all questions about what exists to natural science is really an expression of what he calls, and has come to be known as, naturalism.
Along the same line of thought, a number (and any other mathematical entity) is a set of neurons that form a specific structure in my brain.
— bioByron
There's a real problem with this view. If "seven" is a structure in your brain, then your "seven" is not the same as my "seven", which would be a distinct structure in my brain.
But when we each say seven is one more than six, we both mean the same thing.
Hence we must conclude that "seven" is not just a structure in your brain. Rather, it is in some way common to both you and I.
Plato answered this problem by positing a world of forms in which we both share. I think there are better answers, to do with how we use words. — Banno
Respect.Do I get a prize? :halo: — J
There's a real problem with this view. If "seven" is a structure in your brain, then your "seven" is not the same as my "seven", which would be a distinct structure in my brain.Along the same line of thought, a number (and any other mathematical entity) is a set of neurons that form a specific structure in my brain. — bioByron
I wasn't quite able to follow your point here. Are we in agreement that advocates of quantifier variance have failed to give an adequate account? ThatThose quantifiers are introduced differently, and as the paper "Quantifier Variance Dissolved" notes that provides a strong argument for a form quantifier variance without a reduction of quantifier meaning to underlying entity type it quantifies over, and without committing yourself to the claim that there's a whole bunch of equally correct logics for the purposes of ontology. — fdrake
and that this has not been provided?a mere difference in the domain of quantification is not enough to deliver a difference in the meaning of the quantifiers, rather a difference in the rules that govern the quantifiers would be required.
