I mean that we're actively asking the question "what does 'X is immoral?' mean?" and trying to answer it. That's what meta-ethics is.
And in answer you give another sentence: it means, 'I disapprove of X.' But what does
that mean? Recall that you chastised the moral realist for trying to push the question back rather than resolve it. What makes the anti-realist's answer any different? In addition, it has the vice of being empirically false. Even if unilluminating the moral realist at least doesn't express gross semantic ignorance in saying that 'murder is wrong' means that murder is wrong,
rather than something else.
Because we're questioning it. If we were questioning the meaning of "X approves of Y" then the meaning of "X approves of Y" would be questionable.
But there is no reason to question moral claims over claims of approval. The
reason one is questioned and not the other is to satisfy metaphysical prejudices that cannot allow for moral facts to be real. Thus a problem is created where there is none.
I don't understand this.
Competent speakers of English understand what 'X is immoral' means. It means that X is immoral. The subjectivist must deny this, and say that it instead means something else.
The meaning of a sentence isn't simply to be understood only as what follows from combining the (most prominent) dictionary-definition of its component words. Language doesn't work like that.
I didn't say it was. However, contrary to your claim, 'you didn't take out the trash' doesn't sometimes mean, something else. One can imply something else by exploiting the meaning of the sentence; but that doesn't mean the sentence means whatever you want it to imply in any context.
And the statement "X is immoral" is used to express one's disapproval, to report on one's disapproval, to prohibit behaviour, and/or to report on a rule.
No, it is not. For those purposes, we have sentences of the form, 'I disapprove of X.' A statement 'X is immoral' is used to say that X is immoral.
The problem is when one then says that this rule is non-constructed or that moral properties are something other than the traditional empirical properties that we're familiar with. — Michael
What is 'ordinary?' Everyone is perfectly familiar with moral properties,
at least as much as the supposedly more real empirical properties the subjectivist tries to replace them with. So it is impossible not to be prescriptive here, because if the subjectivist looks to how the language is actually used, he will notice that people use sentences like 'X is immoral' and mean that X is immoral, not something else. So moral properties are mysterious? We understand 'traditional, empirical' properties better? Says who? Ah, says the subjectivist. But why should we listen to him? Again, because he has a certain metaphysical agenda.
Once you adopt realism you attempt to subtract the empirical use of language from the meaning of the phrase, but as the meaning of the phrase is its empirical use there's nothing meaningful left. — Michael
Except the objectivist is honest about how people use the phrase, whereas the subjectivist makes up other meanings to suit his philosophical agenda.