Comments

  • A potential solution to the hard problem
    A good read.

    I noted the similarity between the "thick moment" and Douglas Hofstadter's I am a strange loop. Prophetic stuff.

    That and the suggestion that having a self is evidenced by wanking.
    Banno

    Well, it rings true! :rofl:
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    There is no invisible thing associated with consciousness.
    — Sam26

    Given that consciousness has both public and private aspects, I disagree. There is only no invisible thing associated with our public behaviour, including our talk about consciousness.
    — Luke

    I'm not so sure we disagree here. There are private experiences going on all the time, but in order to talk about these private experiences there has to be the public component. I'm referring to the use of the word soul. The religious idea that there is some private thing that represents the soul, i.e., that gives meaning to the concept, is problematic. The use of the word apart from the religious use, is associated with that which animates the body, or the actions of the body. There are obviously unseen things going on.
    Sam26

    I disagreed with what you said earlier: "There is no invisible thing associated with consciousness." However, now you say "There are obviously unseen things going on"...?

    As I said earlier, we need to distinguish public behaviour - including language use - from an individual's private experience. Both aspects are involved in consciousness.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    The public part being that which allows us to access the concepts and ideas associated with what's happening to us privately. Without the public part there would be no talking about consciousness, period.Sam26

    I think it may be useful to separate the private from the public: on the one hand, an individual's private experience(s) - "what's happening to us privately" - and on the other hand, our public behaviour, including our public language/concepts about consciousness. I agree that "without the public part there would be no talking about consciousness", but I think it is questionable whether our public language/concepts can ever exhaust/capture every nuance of every person's private experience.

    If you mean there is no scientific avenue of investigation into these private experiences, that too, seems false to me. We investigate these private experiences all the time in science. To investigate the person (their private experiences) is to investigate consciousness. We can easily collect data on such an investigation, and have collected data.Sam26

    Again, I agree. However, scientific investigations depend on our public language/concepts which, again, may not exhaust/capture every nuance of every person's private experience.

    There is no invisible thing associated with consciousness.Sam26

    Given that consciousness has both public and private aspects, I disagree. There is only no invisible thing associated with our public behaviour, including our talk about consciousness.
  • Top Ten Favorite Films
    I was going to try and whittle it down (but wth), and there are plenty more, but some of my favourites:

    Star Wars
    The Empire Strikes Back
    12 Angry Men
    Back to the Future
    Headhunters
    The Lives of Others
    Ex Machina
    About Time
    Amadeus
    The Seventh Seal
    Chef
    Sound of Metal
    Calvary
    The Fall
    The Salvation
    The Father
    1917
    Oldboy
    Fight Club
    Dark City
    Donnie Darko
    Little Miss Sunshine
    Groundhog Day
    Wish I Was Here
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    Yes, that's right. The 'feeling of pain' is not a reified object. It's a folk notion. It exists in that sense (like the category 'horses' exists), but there's no physical manifestation of it.Isaac

    When you say "the feeling of pain is not a reified object", it sounds like you're denying that people really have pains. The feeling of pain is not merely a learned concept, because pain hurts. Animals without linguistic concepts can be in pain, and we can sympathise with those in pain. Pains exist in the world, are real and are therefore 'reified', as much as horses are. The physical manifestations of pain are found in the behaviours of people and other animals.

    Then how could we ever learn to use the word?
    — Luke

    By trying it out and it's having a useful and predictable effect.
    Isaac

    That might be the case if you had to learn language without anybody's help. A more common scenario is that, when first learning the language, others see you in pain (i.e. see your physical manifestations of pain) and teach you the meaning of the word when you experience it. "Oh did you hurt yourself?" "Where does it hurt?" "Do you have a tummy ache?" "Is your knee sore?" "Is it painful?"

    As Wittgenstein suggests: "How does a human being learn the meaning of names of sensations? For example, of the word “pain”. Here is one possibility: words are connected with the primitive, natural, expressions of sensation and used in their place. A child has hurt himself and he cries; then adults talk to him and teach him exclamations and, later, sentences. They teach the child new pain-behaviour.
    “So you are saying that the word ‘pain’ really means crying?” — On the contrary: the verbal expression of pain replaces crying, it does not describe it."
    (PI 244)

    Yes. I find it philosophically interesting too. What I'm arguing against here is there being any kind of 'problem' with the fact that neuroscience (dealing with physically instantiated entities) cannot give a one-to-one correspondence account connecting these entities to the folk notions 'pain' and 'consciousness' (as well as 'feeling', 'it's like...', 'aware', etc).

    It's not a problem because it's neither the task, nor expected of science to explain all such folk notions in terms of physically instantiated objects and their interactions.

    Basically, because (2) is at least possible, there's no 'hard problem' of consciousness because neuroscience's failure to account for it in terms of one-to-one correspondence with physically instantiated objects may be simply because there is no such correspondence to be found.
    Isaac

    Assuming there isn't a one-to-one correspondence - and it seems likely there isn't - I don't see that the problem of subjective experience therefore disappears. Neither do I consider subjective experience to be merely a "folk notion" - again, pain hurts. Therefore, it seems to me that the lack of one-to-one correspondence only makes neuroscience's task of explaining subjective experience more difficult (assuming that it is a task for neuroscience, rather than some other branch of science).
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    I don't follow why there cannot be a feeling of pain associated.
    — Luke

    The quote was "... cannot not be a feeling of pain associated."
    Isaac

    My mistake. However, you've been saying for a few pages that the use of the word cannot give us any reified object, but now you say that there is always a feeling of pain associated with the felicitous use of the word?

    Incidentally, I don't agree that there is always a feeling of pain associated with felicitous use of the word; perhaps only with felicitous expressions of pain that include the use of the word "pain". Hopefully neither of us are in too much pain while felicitously using the word in this discussion.

    there's no physical manifestation of the word 'pain'Isaac

    Then how could we ever learn to use the word?

    I'm arguing something like (2) for both 'pain' and 'consciousness'.Isaac

    Yes, and I view your 1) and 2) as basically designating what may sometimes be referred to as "internal" (feeling) and "external" (behavioural) notions of pain, respectively. According to Wittgenstein, linguistic meaning is all 2), while 1) is his beetle in the box: not a something, but not a nothing either.

    This is probably why you find 1) scientifically uninteresting, but I find it philosophically interesting.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    ...the last bit doesn't make sense. There cannot not be a feeling 'pain' associated with the felicitous use of the word 'pain'. It's what the word means.Isaac

    I don't follow why there cannot be a feeling of pain associated. What is "what the word means"?

    If I tell someone that I'm in pain, there's no feeling involved?
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    Did I, or did I not use the word 'pain' in the sentence "There is always a feeling of pain associated with the (felicitous use of the) word pain"?Isaac

    You did. And in your previous post you indicated that there is never any feeling of pain involved with the use of the word 'pain', as I quoted.

    Is there always a feeling of pain involved or never a feeling of pain involved?
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    There is always a feeling of pain associated with the (felicitous use of the) word pain.Isaac

    In your previous post you said the opposite:

    Your "agreement" that people have pains seems to be no more than that people know how to use the word "pain"; that there is never any feeling of pain involved.
    — Luke

    That's right.
    Isaac

    Therefore, it's difficult to get clear on your position.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    I use the word 'pain' same as everyone else because I've been taught how to use it. One of the ways to use it is to say (of someone saying "ouch!") "he's in pain". Nothing in that use reifies 'pain'.Isaac

    Sure, one use it to say that he - someone else - is in pain. And Wittgenstein says you can doubt that. But you can't doubt it when you're in pain. Therefore:

    I don't see any argument that us using a word somehow automatically means there's an object/event there in need of explanation. How are we always right? Are you claiming we have some kind of deep intuitive insight into the workings of the universe? I'm just not seeing the link.Isaac

    If you agree with Wittgenstein's statement that when you have pain you cannot doubt that you have pain, then it doesn't make any sense to be wrong (or right) about it.

    Your "agreement" that people have pains seems to be no more than that people know how to use the word "pain"; that there is never any feeling of pain involved.
    — Luke

    That's right.
    Isaac

    If there is never any feeling of pain involved with people's expressions of pain, then in what sense do they have pain(s)? What is the difference between pain-behaviour with pain and pain-behaviour without pain? Or can there be no pretence of pain?

    Is it not scientifically relevant to investigate mental events?
    — Luke

    Investigate, yes. But it's not a problem for the science that it can't find anything which correlates to the folk notion. It's not its job to match everything up. Some things won't match. To suggest that everything will match up is to imply we already know all the fundamental objects of the universe somehow.
    Isaac

    I don't know what you mean by "match up" or why we would need to "know all the fundamental objects of the universe" in order to do so.

    Even if it isn't a scientific problem, it is a philosophical one.

    As far as I know, anomalous monism does not deny that there are mental events.
    — Luke

    Nor am I.
    Isaac

    Yet you admit there is never any feeling of pain involved with the use of the word "pain". That sounds like logical behaviourism to me. What feelings or mental events do you allow for then?
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    A word can't be defined as a thing. That's the whole point of Wittgenstein's argument against reference. We use the word pain, it does a job, it's not pointing at a thing.Isaac

    You agreed that people have pains. Did you mean only that people have words?

    I'm a competent user of English, so I can agree that people have pains and doubts since I know how to use both of those words.Isaac

    Your "agreement" that people have pains seems to be no more than that people know how to use the word "pain"; that there is never any feeling of pain involved.

    Nothing in my use of the words commits me to the existence of some scientifically relevant entity to which they point.Isaac

    Ah, "scientifically relevant". Is it not scientifically relevant to investigate mental events?

    Words don't point at things.Isaac

    Only fingers point at things?

    if there's something you don't understand about anomalous monismIsaac

    As far as I know, anomalous monism does not deny that there are mental events.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    Then it is not only about the use of words; it is also about actually having pain
    — Luke

    'Pain' is a word.
    Isaac

    Yes, a word that is often defined as a feeling or sensation.

    I'm not arguing that using a word necessarily implies the existence of anything.
    — Luke

    Yet...

    it follows that there are things/people which exist that can have pains and doubts (among other things).
    — Luke

    ...is a direct claim about existence resulting from the use of a word.
    Isaac

    The full quote may help:

    if you agree with Wittgenstein's statement that it makes no sense for one to doubt they are in pain, then it follows that there are things/people which exist that can have pains and doubtsLuke

    You have agreed that it makes no sense for one to doubt that they are in pain. Therefore, are you arguing that people don't exist? Or that they don't have pains and doubts? Or that people are only words?

    Exactly. "If..." The existence is not given by the use.Isaac

    You seem to be accusing me of talking people and/or doubts into existence. But you've already agreed that people have doubts and pains, and you've already agreed with Wittgenstein's statement that it makes no sense for a person to doubt they are in pain. So I don't see what your point is. Are you arguing that only words exist?

    It seems to me that you also equate "consciousness" with talk of the outer behaviour of bodies.
    — Luke

    Does it? From which particular comments?
    Isaac

    From everything I've read of yours on this site. You claim either that consciousness is nothing more than a human fiction, or else it's not a fiction but there's no need to explain it. In short, that human experiences are make believe and there's nothing more to consciousness but language use and other behaviour. On the other hand, you've recently told me you do not deny that people have pains, doubts, thoughts, etc, so it's unclear.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    Because the word 'doubt' has no meaning in that context. Doubt is used when the data is lacking, but the data can't be lacking about pain because we treat the data as being already given. It's part of the definition.Isaac

    Then it is not only about the use of words; it is also about actually having pain and being unable to doubt it. Whether or not this implies a "thinking being", it at least implies a being that has the capacity for having pains, certainties and doubts.

    Also, I strongly doubt that you could produce a dictionary definition of "pain" that includes any mention of certainty or "data".

    It isn't. Necessity is a modal concept. That which must exist. The only way I can see it entering into logic is modally - if X then Y. So we could say "if the word doubt refers to a scientific object/event, then it implies there's a thinking subject also as a scientific object", but simply using the word doesn't cash out that modality.Isaac

    As I said earlier, I'm not arguing that using a word necessarily implies the existence of anything. However, I would say that if you agree with Wittgenstein's statement that it makes no sense for one to doubt they are in pain, then it follows that there are things/people which exist that can have pains and doubts (among other things).

    Moreover, if to have a doubt is to have a lack of certainty with regards to some proposition, then there must be someone to doubt it. And it seems reasonable that in order to doubt it, one must have given it some thought.

    From the article...Isaac

    Also from the article:

    ...despite his appeal to "notional worlds," Dennett still owes his reader an account of how we are able to interpret the content of "reports" that others make and the content of the
    beliefs they hold. And even he realises that the heterophenomenological "process depends on assumptions about which language is being spoken, and some of the speaker's intentions." But he gives no explanation as to how we are able to interpret these quasi-'reports' of others. For example, in collaborating to create your heterophenomenological world I hear you say "I see a purple cow." But what is it that I take you to be saying? How am I to understand the meaning of that report if it is referring to some item in your notional world? What is it about my knowledge of English that enables me to know what you mean? It cannot be that I understand you because I know what kind of notional objects your words designate. For, to put the point succinctly, the private-language argument will work just as effectively against objects in a notional world as in a private inner world. Beetles in boxes are beetles in boxes, whether they are real or notional. [...]

    I believe it helps to see how unbehaviourist [Wittgenstein] really was when we contrast his position to that of Dennett's. For in concentrating solely on the "grammar" of our mental discourse, by rejecting the name-object picture of language as altogether inappropriate in this domain, Wittgenstein is led to a more satisfactory view of the nature and importance of consciousness. He has not tried to equate "consciousness" with talk of the outer behaviour of bodies, rather he has reminded us that in treating others as conscious we are always engaged in an interpretative project (broadly conceived) informed by our form of life.

    It seems to me that you also equate "consciousness" with talk of the outer behaviour of bodies.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    The word 'doubt' is used in such a way as makes "I doubt I'm in pain" nonsensical, makes "I doubt I'm thinking" garbage...Isaac

    Why is "I doubt I'm in pain" nonsensical?

    But these are facts about the use of the word 'doubt', they're not about logical necessity.Isaac

    If "the internal coherence of language" is about logic or logical necessity, then so is the use of the word "doubt".

    If, for example, I declare that 'whatsits' have 5 arms and 'thingamabobs' have 2 it is logically implied that 'whatsits' have more arms. But this says nothing about the necessary existence of either.Isaac

    Right, it's logically implied.

    If I use a word 'doubt' and it's sensible use requires also an 'I' to do the doubting, this likewise says nothing about the necessary existence of either.Isaac

    I agree that the use of a word does not necessarily imply the existence of something. But do you deny that people have pains, doubts, thoughts, etc?
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?

    That’s a great article. Thanks for sharing! :up:
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    He's pointing out what it "makes sense" to say - the internal coherence of the language.Isaac

    I don't see that he's only talking about "the internal coherence of the language". It does not seem to be by definition that it makes no sense for me to doubt whether I am in pain.
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    So we haven't discovered a truth of any sort. we just use a word a certain way and people know what to do with it when we do.Isaac

    This much is true: it makes sense to say about other people that they doubt whether I am in pain; but not to say it about myself. — Wittgenstein, PI 246
  • Why is the Hard Problem of Consciousness so hard?
    Other people cannot be said to learn of my sensations only from my behaviour — for I cannot be said to learn of them. I have them.
    This much is true: it makes sense to say about other people that they doubt whether I am in pain; but not to say it about myself.
    — Wittgenstein, PI 246
  • The ineffable

    Still crickets to my latest reply? I guess you couldn't find any quotes to support your memory failure.

    Lukes error was to suppose that expressing a rule had to be either stating it, and hence effable, or enacting it, and hence ineffable, but you were pointing out that we can follow a rule that can also be stated, and hence the doing is not ineffable.Banno

    The list of instructions either gives us the required knowledge of how to ride a bike or it does not. If we don't know how to ride after reading the exhaustive list of instructions - as you claimed - then some knowledge is necessarily missing from the instructions. The only reason why some knowledge could be missing from the instructions is because that knowledge is ineffable. Otherwise, the list of instructions is not exhaustive.

    However, we know that the list of instructions is exhaustive, because you said that it could be "to whatever detail we desire" and yet we still wouldn't know how to ride. Furthermore, you implied that the act of riding the bike is some sort of extra knowledge that is additional to, and missing from, the list of instructions (even though the instructions are supposedly exhaustive and instruct one how to ride a bike). Once more, in your own words:

    Or, suppose we had a list of the instructions for riding a bike, to whatever detail we desire. Would we then know how to ride a bike? Well, no. So what is missing? Just, and only, the riding of the bike. But that's not something it makes sense to add to the list!Banno

    Therefore, it was your error that "the doing is ineffable", not mine. Unless you have any evidence to indicate otherwise, this error is all yours.
  • The ineffable
    Lukes error was to suppose that expressing a rule had to be either stating it, and hence effable, or enacting it, and hence ineffable, but you were pointing out that we can follow a rule that can also be stated, and hence the doing is not ineffable.Banno

    Where or when did I make this error? Do you have a quote?

    I think your memory is failing you, @Banno, This was your error, not mine. You were the one who said:

    Or, suppose we had a list of the instructions for riding a bike, to whatever detail we desire. Would we then know how to ride a bike? Well, no. So what is missing? Just, and only, the riding of the bike.Banno

    I was the one who spent almost 30 pages trying to correct you.

    Otherwise, go ahead and state it now: what knowledge is missing from the exhaustive list of instructions such that we do not know how to ride a bike?
  • Does meaning persist over time?

    If, in the OP, you used the word "mean" to mean what I think you mean by it, and if its meaning has not changed in the meantime, then this means that its meaning can persist over time.
  • The ineffable
    So folk ought restrict themselves to not saying anything more about the ineffable than that it is ineffable.
    — Banno

    But that's saying something about it, according to you.
    — Luke

    Now you're getting it.
    Banno

    Which one is it? That "folk ought restrict themselves to not saying anything more about the ineffable than that it is ineffable" or that folk cannot claim that something is ineffable due to the liar-like paradox that one has then said something about it?

    If it's the former, then we can discuss what things - if any - are ineffable, which is what I thought this discussion was about.
  • The ineffable
    ...nothing else can be said about something except that it's ineffable... Crisis averted.
    — Luke

    So folk ought restrict themselves to not saying anything more about the ineffable than that it is ineffable.
    Banno

    But that's saying something about it, according to you.
  • The ineffable
    What Witti points out is that, that you cannot have my sensation is a direct result of it's being my sensation. If you had it, too, it would by that very fact no longer be just my sensation...

    248. The sentence “Sensations are private” is comparable to “One plays patience by oneself”.
    Banno

    One does play patience by oneself, so what do you consider to be the point of this remark? Presumably, that sensations are private.

    Here's the issue that plagues any attempt to claim ineffability:

    The problem with claiming that something is ineffable is, of course, the liar-paradox-like consequence that one has thereby said something about it.
    — Banno

    Can you escape this paradox?
    Banno

    Claiming that something is ineffable thereby makes it effable? But this implies that we could never use the word "ineffable" (to mean that nothing can be said about something). That's absurd.

    Okay then, nothing else can be said about something except that it's ineffable.

    There. Crisis averted.

    Unless logical pedantry was intended to be the substance of this discussion? In that case, I must have missed the joke.
  • The ineffable

    It's been 11 days so I guess no response to my last post is forthcoming. You appear to consider Wittgenstein a supporter of your position, yet you provide no argument or evidence to refute my claim that he denies only the privacy of language, not the privacy of the feeling of sensations.

    At §243 Wittgenstein says of the putative private language that it is supposed "to refer to what only the speaker can know — to his immediate private sensations".

    He appears to acknowledge here, at least, that one's immediate sensations are private.

    My reply, to you and to various others, was summed up in what you quoted above,

    (it) pretends that our sensations are prior to our "being in the world". It assumes the perspective of an homunculus.
    Banno

    What perspective does it assume to pretend that our language is prior to "being in the world"? Or, that there exist true statements independent of anyone's expressing them?

    "The cup has one handle" is true IFF the cup has one handle.Banno

    Your argument appears to be that if there are ineffable parts of the world then these parts can be expressed by true statements. This assumes that those parts of the world cannot be ineffable. As @Constance notes, this begs the question.
  • The ineffable
    I can only imagine that the findings that there isn’t a one-to-one correspondence comes from testing subjects’ neural activity while they are smelling coffee (or while they are “in the presence of coffee” as you originally put it). Therefore, what is in common to them all is that they are smelling coffee.
    — Luke

    Thinking of coffee does it too. Smelling something you think is going to be coffee but isn't, expecting coffee...
    — Isaac

    Does what too?
    — Luke

    Triggers one of a number of neural networks associated with reports of 'smelling coffee'.

    I'm baffled as to why this is causing such confusion.

    Several different neural events result in us reporting we experience 'smelling coffee'

    There's no single thing connecting all the different events other than that they all happen to result (sometimes) in reports of 'smelling coffee'

    Since there's no biological link, and no external world link, the only conclusion we can reach is that it's our own post hoc construction to conceptualise any given neural event as 'smelling coffee'.
    Isaac

    I am trying to understand the test that brought about the results that there isn't a one-to-one correspondence between smelling coffee and some common neural activity among subjects. I presume that you would get the subjects to smell coffee while monitoring their neural activity, and then find that there is no common neural activity associated with smelling coffee. The only way to find this is to have them all smell coffee.

    Rather than confirm this, you said "Thinking of coffee does it too. Smelling something you think is going to be coffee but isn't, expecting coffee..." When I asked what it does too, you said that it "Triggers one of a number of neural networks associated with reports of 'smelling coffee'".

    That's beside the point.

    Thinking about coffee and expecting coffee may also have no one-to-one correspondence with neural activity, but in order to find that there is no one-to-one correspondence between neural activity and smelling coffee, the test subjects needed to have smelled coffee. I'm not disagreeing that there isn't a one-to-one correspondence, only that in order to conclude that there isn't, then the test subjects needed to have smelled coffee.

    All you've done is introduce the fact that people also say "I smell coffee" even if they are only thinking about or expecting coffee, which is to say: even when they aren't smelling coffee. Excluding those who are only thinking about or expecting coffee, the common factor among those who report "I smell coffee" is that they smell coffee.
  • The ineffable
    I can only imagine that the findings that there isn’t a one-to-one correspondence comes from testing subjects’ neural activity while they are smelling coffee (or while they are “in the presence of coffee” as you originally put it). Therefore, what is in common to them all is that they are smelling coffee.
    — Luke

    Nope. Thinking of coffee does it too.
    Isaac

    Does what too?
  • The ineffable
    That argument is circular. If you decide that some collection of neural activity is called 'smelling coffee' then obviously 'smelling coffee' is going to then be common to all, you defined it that way.Isaac

    I never said it was some collection of neural activity.. I can only imagine that the findings that there isn’t a one-to-one correspondence comes from testing subjects’ neural activity while they are smelling coffee (or while they are “in the presence of coffee” as you originally put it). Therefore, what is in common to them all is that they are smelling coffee. They all need to be smelling coffee in order to find that there is no common neural activity while doing so, I take it.
  • The ineffable
    We've no apparent biological reason to group the various neural goings on in the way we do. No reason to have the collection 'smelling coffee' at all, other than for communication.Isaac

    In addition to communication, what’s common to many instances of the collection ‘smelling coffee’ is the smelling of coffee.
  • The ineffable
    Yes, but the key thing that some miss, I think, is that there's no one-to-one relationship between the two, such that a small and variable number of 'chemical and physiological reactions of my brain in the presence of coffee' might be described by us as "I smell coffee". There's no one set of neural goings-on which correspond to 'smelling coffee', we estimate, make up, narrate, story-tell... We make a Bayesian inference that what's going on fits with the story that "I smell coffee". Which, of course, is where the unavoidably culturally-embedded nature of 'experiencing coffee' comes in, since we wouldn't have the rules, the criteria for what sorts of mental goings on might fit the narrative 'smelling coffee' without learning the words 'smelling' and 'coffee' (or the non-linguistic equivalent, for the dumb, or the deaf).Isaac

    FWIW, "the deaf" also use language. And I wouldn't say "the dumb" in public.
  • The ineffable
    my reply to ↪Luke
    , repeating a point made on page one:

    "Suppose someone had a list of the instructions for riding a bike, to whatever detail we desire. Would they then be a bike rider? Well, no. So what is missing? Just, and only, the riding of the bike." — Banno

    We can't put the tree or the smell or the bike ride or ↪jgill
    's olympic diver into words. they are things in the world, not sentences. If you like, call them ineffable, but don't make the mistake of thinking that we can't therefor talk about them. We can, and we do.
    Banno

    Is this your response to my questions? I can possibly overlook all that you said about knowledge on page 1, including the set of instructions specified to whatever detail we desire, and accept your explanation that you did not intend for that example to concern knowledge. However, that only covers one of my questions. You did not answer this one:

    You said that we do talk about sensations. However, Wittgenstein says of his beetle that "The thing in the box doesn’t belong to the language-game at all". If the beetle in the box represents sensations (as Richard B suggests here), then it seems like you are advocating both positions?Luke

    In case it was unclear, the "both positions" I was referring to were your claim that we do talk about sensations, but also (what Wittgenstein seems to imply with his beetle) that sensations do not belong to the language game at all. How can it be that we both talk about sensations but that they do not belong to the language game at all? I will proceed to attempt to sketch a case for the latter, as I see it in PI.

    At 244, W gives us a possible explanation of how a child learns sensations words, such as "pain". His story is that this occurs by association with the child's natural expressions of pain. For example, an adult sees the child crying and asks them if they are "in pain". The child gradually learns to associate the meaning of the word "pain" with their own external behaviour (and presumably, also, with their own internal sensation).

    W proceeds with the private language argument against the possibility of having a private language that can only be used with respect to an individual's private sensations.

    At 304 (and elsewhere), W distinguishes between pain and pain-behaviour. W notes that we can have pain-behaviour either with or without pain.

    W does not deny that we have private sensations or that we can concentrate our attention on them (e.g. see 258, 305, 306), only that our public language does not work by describing them.

    At 272 W does not deny the possibility of inverted spectra, or that we might each have a different "visual impression" of the colour red.

    W is an expressivist regarding sensations, i.e. we express pain; we don't describe it. At 244-245 "the verbal expression of pain replaces crying, it does not describe it."

    At 307: "“Aren’t you nevertheless a behaviourist in disguise? Aren’t you nevertheless basically saying that everything except human behaviour is a fiction?” — If I speak of a fiction, then it is of a grammatical fiction."

    This all demonstrates that our sensation words/language do not describe something internal, but instead refer to external behaviours. I cannot describe my own personal "visual impression" of red because that's not how language works. Like Wittgenstein's beetle-in-the-box, my personal visual impression of red "doesnt belong to the language game at all" (293). Like inverted spectra "it would be quite possible for everyone to have something different in his box" (293). My personal visual impression of red "drops out of consideration as irrelevant" (293). As you yourself note, Banno, a blind person can learn to use colour terms.

    This is why private sensations are not a Something but not a Nothing either. Since language only works with respect to public external behaviours - expressions of pain - and does not describe private internal experiences, then an individual's private internal experiences are ineffable.

    304. “But you will surely admit that there is a difference between pain-behaviour with pain and pain-behaviour without pain.” — Admit it? What greater difference could there be? — “And yet you again and again reach the conclusion that the sensation itself is a Nothing.” — Not at all. It’s not a Something, but not a Nothing either! The conclusion was only that a Nothing would render the same service as a Something about which nothing could be said. We’ve only rejected the grammar which tends to force itself on us here.
    The paradox disappears only if we make a radical break with the idea that language always functions in one way, always serves the same purpose: to convey thoughts — which may be about houses, pains, good and evil, or whatever.
    — Philosophical Investigations
  • The ineffable
    Do you intend to address these questions, Banno?
    — Luke

    Behold! We are not done yet! There is more!
    Banno

    Does that mean you are going to address my questions?
  • The ineffable
    Because it gets to the intent of the post, without the "knowing" that confused the issue
    — Banno

    Okay, so what was the original intent if it wasn't about knowledge?
    Luke

    Do we talk about them? Or do they drop out of the conversation as irrelevant? — Luke

    Exactly. Somehow sensations are supposed to occupy some middle (@Moliere) ground, private, ineffable, yet the foundation of our understanding (@Constance).

    You clever folk all agree, but can't explain it. I call bullshit.
    — Banno

    You said that we do talk about sensations. However, Wittgenstein says of his beetle that "The thing in the box doesn’t belong to the language-game at all". If the beetle in the box represents sensations (as Richard B suggests here), then it seems like you are advocating both positions?
    Luke

    Do you intend to address these questions, Banno? I understand if you don't since it took you over 20 pages to acknowledge the contradiction I pointed out to you. Even then, you brushed the contradiction off merely as something you "could have...expressed more clearly" and didn't address it.
  • The ineffable
    Didn't I already acknowledge this, in saying "sure, I'm using the word in a special way"? Surely we're still able to make distinctions?Moliere

    Sure we can make distinctions. I just thought we were discussing the possibility of ineffability according to its common definition, rather than your “special” definition.
  • The ineffable
    It'd be more interesting to say something is ineffable because it's not even teachable, or not even learn-able, rather than because we don't know something.Moliere

    "Ineffable" doesn't mean "not teachable". As per the definition I gave earlier, it means "ncapable of being expressed or described in words"; i.e. "not sayable".

    Furthermore, I am not arguing that something is ineffable because we don't know it. Instead, I'm saying that it's ineffable when we do know it but can't express that knowledge in words; when we can't say it.
  • The ineffable


    Wittgenstein also maintains in his later work that some knowledge is ineffable. From PI:

    78. Compare knowing and saying:

    how many metres high Mont Blanc is —
    how the word “game” is used —
    how a clarinet sounds.

    Someone who is surprised that one can know something and not be able to say it is perhaps thinking of a case like the first. Certainly not of one like the third.
    — Philosophical Investigations
  • The ineffable
    Do we talk about them? Or do they drop out of the conversation as irrelevant? — Luke

    Exactly. Somehow sensations are supposed to occupy some middle (@Moliere) ground, private, ineffable, yet the foundation of our understanding (@Constance).

    You clever folk all agree, but can't explain it. I call bullshit.
    Banno

    You said that we do talk about sensations. However, Wittgenstein says of his beetle that "The thing in the box doesn’t belong to the language-game at all". If the beetle in the box represents sensations (as @Richard B suggests here), then it seems like you are advocating both positions?
  • The ineffable
    I agree sensations are entirely ineffable. — Mww

    And yet we do talk about them.
    Banno

    Do we talk about them? Or do they drop out of the conversation as irrelevant?
  • The ineffable
    I believe an exhaustive list of instructions will not give one knowledge of how to ride a bike, because I'd say that we do have to actually do something in order to learn. I have read my piano books, but practicing them everyday is how I learn (in a more perfect me, at least)Moliere

    I've never argued against the fact that "we do have to actually do something in order to learn". I take it that a person with a copy of 'The Dummy's Guide to Riding a Bike' will actually get on the bike in order to learn how. In fact, I assume that would form part of the instructions.

    But I also want to say that this doesn't make it ineffable -- where you say an exhaustive list will give someone knowledge, I'm hesitant because I'm thinking about how practice seems to be needed too.Moliere

    Of course practice is needed. Is actually doing the activity to be learned something that would be omitted from the instructions? Does your recipe book not instruct you to pre-heat the oven and combine certain ingredients together, etc? Is there some knowledge not included in the recipe for (e.g.) how to bake bread, in principle? In what way does a recipe book not give you knowledge of how to bake bread? What knowledge is missing from the recipe (i.e. the list of instructions for how to bake bread)?

    Working my way through an example-- anyone who didn't know how to ride a bike, supposing this was a good list of instructions, would upon reading it now know how to ride a bike. Hence, it is effable, by your account. Right?Moliere

    Right.

    Right! I think what I want to say, though, is that after being shown, what was ineffable is no longer ineffable. And, if that be the case, it suggests that we could continue this process of turning what is, right now, ineffable to us -- into something which is no longer ineffable.Moliere

    If nobody verbally expressed what was shown, and if it can only be shown and cannot be said, then I don't see how it is no longer ineffable. How has it become effable?

    Wouldn't we just have to know everything in order to be able to say, definitively, this is what can be said while gesturing to what can't?Moliere

    Do you need to know everything in order to know how to play the piano or how to bake bread? If the knowledge of how to play the piano or how to bake bread cannot be entirely contained in a list of instructions, then you might say that at least some of that knowledge is ineffable.

    But then there's the case of coming-to-know, and knowledge-production, and that we can learn.Moliere

    This is all knowledge-related.

    So I think I want to use "the ineffable" in a specialized way to mean that which cannot even be learned by creatures like us. Immortality is the case I like to use because it's clear-cut -- in order for creatures like us to learn if they are immortal, we have to die. If we die, we're no longer a creature. Therefore, a creature like us will never learn if we are immortal. It's ineffable.Moliere

    Okay, then not all knowledge is effable.

    I want to say this specialized case is different from the case of learning how to ride a bike. How to ride a bike, in the dictionary . com definition way, is ineffable. But immortality, in this specialized sense, is ineffable in principle (again, for creatures like us).Moliere

    I don't follow why you believe that knowledge of how to ride a bike is not also at least partially ineffable (knowledge) in principle, especially given your hesitation to concede that an exhaustive list of instructions would give one knowledge.
  • The ineffable
    Because it gets to the intent of the post, without the "knowing" that confused the issueBanno

    Okay, so what was the original intent if it wasn't about knowledge?