My issue involves...
...(if there are zero things to be had and you have all zero of them),
— Pfhorrest
Saying "you have all zero of them" neglects the fact that in order to have all of anything requires that there first be something to have. Having all of something requires at least one thing. Zero things is not at least one thing. Zero things is nothing, and not in the same sense as when the term "nothing" is used as a means to pick out everything. — creativesoul
This just goes back to how having all of something just means there are none you don’t have. If there are zero things, and you have zero of them, then there are no things (out of those zero things in question) that you don’t have. You have zero out of zero, which is the most out of zero you could possibly have, i.e. all of it. — Pfhorrest
You're still neglecting the facts here.
In order to have all of anything, there must be something to have. Something is not equivalent to nothing. Nothing is not all of something. Nothing is not all of anything.
You say:
You have zero out of zero, which is the most out of zero you could possibly have, i.e. all of it.
"All of it"???
"The most out of zero"???
:brow:
All of
IT is all of
something, because "it" always refers to something. Something
is not equivalent to nothing. Yet, that is precisely how you've been employing the term "nothing". I said much earlier that it looked like an equivocation fallacy to me. Now, it's certain.
It’s weird, yeah, but that’s because we don’t usually talk about empty sets, because there’s almost no practical need to.
It's not
just weird. It's incoherent at best, and utter nonsense at worst. Either way, it's an equivocation of the terms "zero" and "nothing". That much is certain.
All meaningful use of
"the most" presupposes
"the least". "The most" makes no sense whatsoever unless there is also "the least". These two notions are both existentially and semantically dependent upon one another.
This is just plain old common sense.
"The most" and "the least" are always in direct inverse proportion to one another when dividing a whole into two unequal portions. That comparison gains complexity when dividing something into more than two unequal proportions, but the meaning of both "the most" and "the least" are still - and always are - established by comparison between a plurality of shares/portions/etc.
We talk about "the most" and "the least" after, and only after, we have
something being dividing into a plurality of unequal (pro)portions. Otherwise, both notions are rendered utterly meaningless. There is no possible referent for either, unless there are referents for both.
And yet...
You've talked of "the most" of both nothing
and zero,
as if there is a meaningful quantitative difference to be drawn between the most of nothing and the least of nothing;
as if there is a meaningful quantitative difference to be drawn between the most of zero and the least of zero.
There is not, and such talk is nonsense.
The most of zero is exactly the same as the least of zero. The most of nothing is exactly the same as the least of nothing. There is no distinction to be drawn here between the most of nothing(zero) and the least of nothing(zero) because they both have precisely the same numerical and/or quantitative value.