• What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    So, my question is the following: does ¬∀ have ontological import? How could it not, if it's equivalent to ∃? And if that's so, then does ∀ have ontological import, since it's equivalent to ¬∃?Arcane Sandwich

    I would say that the first thing to note is that what is equivalent is not ¬∀x(Fx) and ∃x(Fx), but rather ¬∀¬(Fx) and ∃x(Fx) (as well as ¬∃x(Fx) and ∀x¬(Fx)).

    Second, all of these puzzles tend to revolve around different senses of negation. In this case, whether ∀x(Fx) is ontologically committing is an interesting question, but ¬∀x(Fx) seems rather different with regard to ontological commitment. This is because ¬∀x(Fx) will be uncontroversially true whether the domain is empty or whether there is merely nothing that falls under the predicate F. Ergo: it is not controversial whether ¬∀x(Fx) involves ontological commitment (because it is consistent with an empty domain), whereas it is at least somewhat controversial whether ∀x(Fx) is ontologically committing (because it is arguably inconsistent with an empty domain). Put slightly differently: a non-empty domain does not foreclose the question of ontological commitment (with respect to that domain), whereas an empty domain does not bear on the question of ontological commitment, because there are no entities in question at all.

    It is also worth noting that appeals to the Tree Proof Generator (originally linked by Banno) are a form of begging the question. We are asking whether the ontological-commitment relation between the universal and existential quantifier should be different from the classical conception. The Tree Proof Generator just tells us what the classical conception is. It says nothing about whether it should be the way it is. For example, on inclusive logic your (2) does not follow. (Banno often begs the question with the Tree Proof Generator in these metalogical discussions.)

    Maybe it's just me, but I fail to understand how and why someone would treat ∃ and ∀ differently, as far as the discussion about ontological commitment goes.Arcane Sandwich

    Note that I proposed this, as it avoids the negation puzzles:

    This is what we should probably assess, even though (3) is farcical:

    3) ∀x(Sx ∧ Bx) - Everything is a beautiful siren.
    4) ∃x(Sx ∧ Bx) - Therefore, some [existing] siren is beautiful.

    i.e. "If this is valid, then the universal quantifier must have ontological import."
    Leontiskos

    ...but the difficulty may be unavoidable, given that no one would actually accept (3) were it ontologically committing. That is, someone who holds that universal quantification is ontologically committing would almost never use the universal quantifier to make unconditional claims, such as Sx ∧ Bx.

    I say that neither of them does.Arcane Sandwich

    I agree. More precisely, logic should be semantic in the first place, not ontological.* This is that difference between immediate signification and ultimate signification. When we proffer a logical sentence or argument, we are engaged in a form of ampliation. We are saying, at least in the first place, "How does this look to you? I am not committing to it. Let's first consider it as a thesis before committing to anything ontologically." Nevertheless, this "consideration" involves ontology secundum quid, precisely because part of our consideration is a consideration of the ontological question. Of course Quine might claim that we are never really arguing over existence, but that seems wrong on its face. With that said, the radical difference that arises by shifting to a "particularizing" quantifier is often underestimated.

    (This is similar to Kimhi's quest to find force in Frege's content.)

    * Note that this is precisely why essentialism is frowned upon in modern circles: because the modern form of logic is prejudiced against it. The closest predicate logic can get is modal essentialism, which is at best a problematic, second-rate form of essentialism. This is why Klima reworks the logical landscape before arguing for traditional essentialism. He provides a semantic logic that is neutral to the ontological question of essentialism before setting out the sense of traditional essentialism. He takes away the modern logician's hammer and replaces it with a more flexible tool before offering them something other than a nail.
  • I Refute it Thus!
    I’d rather not be accused of making accusationsWayfarer

    Well <here> is the accusation I had in mind, and I pointed out the same error in two subsequent posts, here and here.

    I think it is important to understand that Johnson is not begging the question, but the point is made and I'll leave it there.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    In Free Logic or Inclusive Logic, the existential quantifier explicitly asserts existence when paired with a predicate like ∃x(x=t), and existence becomes a property rather than a background assumption tied to the quantifiers.Banno

    This is the point at issue, and according to SEP it is at best a controversial claim:

    Whether such [Meinongian] logics can legitimately be considered free is controversial. On older conceptions, free logic forbids any quantification over non-existing things...

    Historically, quantification over domains containing objects that do not exist has been widely dismissed as ontologically irresponsible. Quine (1948) famously maintained that existence is just what an existential quantifier expresses.
    5.5 Meinongian Logics | Free Logic | SEP

    So free logic is not free of Quinian intuitions, even though there is a push to abandon Quine's formula and make the logics more purely semantic, at least in some quarters. But I don't want to obscure the original question:

    Does the statement "All sirens are beautiful" have ontological import, in your view?Arcane Sandwich
  • I Refute it Thus!
    But it's equally the case that Johnson misunderstands Berkeley. Johnson is intending to demonstrate that Berkeley's argument entails that the stone does not really exist, but Berkeley doesn't make such a claim.Wayfarer

    And therefore:

    What you are accusing him of is ignoratio elenchus, not begging the question.Leontiskos

    I clarify this because you have accused others (including myself) of the so-called "argumentum ad lapidem," and so it is worth recognizing that it is not the informal fallacy of begging the question (which is what the Wikipedia writer is really claiming). Both are informal fallacies, but one requires a response/clarification and one does not.

    Ignoratio Elenchi

    Johnson's exclamation is the historical origin of the expression 'argumentum ad lapidem'.Wayfarer

    If Wikipedia says that Johnson was begging the question, then I say that Wikipedia is wrong. It happens.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Just out of curiosity, how would you handle the claim that the universal quantifier must have ontological import, if the existential quantifier has it? It would seem that whatever import ∃ has, ∀ must have it as well.Arcane Sandwich

    If Ux(Sx⊃Bx) then ∃x(Sx⊃Bx) followsBanno

    He seems to be asking whether the ontological import of existential quantification implies the ontological import of universal quantification. I think the point you are making has to do with what is called "inclusive logic" (or rather, inclusive logic is what fiddles with the ontological import of the universal quantifier):

    It follows because, in classical first-order predicate logic, universal sentences have existential import: ‘∀x φ(x)’ logically entails ‘∃x φ(x)’. If we want to allow ‘∀x φ(x)’ to be true even when there are no φs (because there is nothing at all), then we do not want it to carry any ontological commitment. Ontological commitments should reside entirely with the existential quantifier. Implementing this is easy. We simply do logic so as to include interpretations with an empty domain—so-called, inclusive logic. According to the truth conditions for quantifiers in inclusive logic, all universal sentences are true in an empty domain, and all existential sentences are false. Once we have made the shift to inclusive logic, we can also say, what seems right, that conditional existential sentences—such as, ‘∃x φ(x) ⊃ ∃x y(x)’—carry no ontological commitment.Inclusive Logic/Free Logic | Ontological Commitment | SEP

    I think free logic has to do with the ontological commitments accompanying singular terms or unbound variables. Instead of rejecting them like Quine did, free logic retains singular terms but deprives them of any accompanying ontological commitment (cf. the same SEP section).

    Thus for free logic this does not follow: If (Sy ∧ By) then ∃x(Sx ∧ Bx)
    (Because the singular term y is not ontologically committing, whereas the existential quantifier is ontologically committing. Hence you could talk about beautiful sirens without committing to their existence.)

    Just out of curiosity, how would you handle the claim that the universal quantifier must have ontological import, if the existential quantifier has it?Arcane Sandwich

    Quine certainly thought so, but I don't know the arguments for that claim. That is, to say that if the existential quantifier has ontological import then the universal quantifier must also have ontological import is to reject inclusive logic.

    Note that for the medievals affirmative categoricals are "ontologically committing":

    If any of the two terms of an affirmative categorical is “empty”, then the term in question refers to nothing. But then, [...] “every affirmative proposition whose subject or predicate refers to nothing is false.”Gyula Klima, Existence and Reference in Medieval Logic, 3

    ---

    1) ∀x(Sx ∧ Bx) - All sirens are beautiful.
    2) ∃x(Sx ∧ Bx) - Therefore, some sirens are beautiful.
    Arcane Sandwich

    If Ux(Sx⊃Bx) then ∃x(Sx⊃Bx) followsBanno

    Note too how Banno's rewriting of the conjunction as an implication adds an additional layer of complexity. He rewrote it because Arcane's (1) actually means, "Everything is a beautiful siren," but the reason Arcane wanted a conjunction is because he was interested in ontological commitment, and a conditional obscures the idea of ontological commitment. This is what we should probably assess, even though (3) is farcical:

    3) ∀x(Sx ∧ Bx) - Everything is a beautiful siren.
    4) ∃x(Sx ∧ Bx) - Therefore, some siren is beautiful.

    i.e. "If this is valid, then the universal quantifier must have ontological import."
  • I Refute it Thus!
    This is nowadays taught as an example of an informal fallacy ('argumentum ad lapidem')Wayfarer

    I have never heard it taught that way. It seems like an erroneous reading. Here is what Wikipedia says:

    Appeal to the stone, also known as argumentum ad lapidem, is a logical fallacy that dismisses an argument as untrue or absurd. The dismissal is made by stating or reiterating that the argument is absurd, without providing further argumentation.Wikipedia

    I don't think it's hard to see that Johnson is not doing this. He is not saying, "You're wrong because you're wrong." In fact he is giving an argument, not begging the question. What you are accusing him of is ignoratio elenchus, not begging the question.

    What is his argument?

    1. If Berkeley were right, *this* would never happen.
    2. But it did happen.
    3. Therefore, Berkeley is wrong.

    Note that this is perfectly valid. You are merely disputing premise (1).

    Further, how does one dispute premise (1) without themselves begging the question? They must explicate Berkeley's theory at least to the extent that a rejection of (1) is understood not to be an ad hoc rejection. That is, the listener has to come away saying, "Ah, I see what Berkeley was saying, why he was saying it, and why it does not entail (1)." That's basically the question: supposing Johnson's first premise is false, then what does follow from Berkeley's "idealism"?

    (I've read the article, but I want to revisit Berkeley before I would comment on it.)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    That is, it in effect has two domains, one of things that exist and one of things that... do not exist.Banno

    Rather, the rejection of Quine's "to be" usually involves the idea that existence is not a predetermined category or domain. So, fiction aside, the crucial point is that you can posit an idea while prescinding from the question of whether or not it exists.

    How Bunge does this would be interesting to know, but note that he does not separate existent things from non-existent things. Instead he separates existing concepts/constructs from existing things. My guess is that he would say that an existing concept may or may not attach to an existing thing. Presumably Quine's point would hold with concepts, namely that there are no non-existing concepts. The intuition behind Quine's point is upheld throughout all of historical philosophy,* but what usually happens is that mental existence is second-tier, such that we can usefully talk about thoughts, intentions, beliefs, hopes, etc., without according them the status of things (entia). Nevertheless, there are no non-existent thoughts - at least identifiable thoughts.

    * The intuition being what Novak calls the principle of reference, "(PR) It is impossible to refer to that which is not."
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    No clear way of showing just how words refer to what we take them to refer to?Janus

    I think that's a good candidate. Quine may be saying little more than that terms are inscrutable apart from context ("holism").

    What is Quine's intended conclusion? I don't think it is as radical as is being assumed. In a 1970 paper he says that the gavagai example is very limited, and demonstrates the inscrutability of terms rather than indeterminacy of translation of sentences.Leontiskos
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    There is an irony in the general analytic tendency to ignore medieval thought (continentals do too, but less). No other period reflects the rigor and professionalization that analytic thought praises, nor the emphasis on logic, semantics, and signification, more than (particularly late) medieval thought. The early modern period has an explosion of creativity in part because philosophy was radically democratized and deprofessionalized (leading to both creativity of a good sort and some of a very stupid sort).Count Timothy von Icarus

    Yes, yes, yes! The reason I find Aquinas so useful on forums like this is because he is so close to analytic methodology. There is literally a school of thought called, "Analytic Thomism." But there are those who recognize this, such as Peirce, Deely, and Klima. A big part of Klima's project is demonstrating how medieval logic was more advanced than modern logic, and solves the modern problems better (such as, say, Russell's King of France).

    And as I pointed out earlier, both approaches achieve a systematic quality that can make them opaque to outsiders, and that when developed too far will lead to a revolt from laymen.

    It's unfortunate because so many debates are just rehashes that could benefit from past work, whereas contemporary thought also has a strong nominalist bias that even effects how realism might be envisaged or advocated for, and the earlier period does not have these same blinders.Count Timothy von Icarus

    Sure, although it is worth remembering that the late medieval period became very "nominalist," and therefore at that point you get very precise debates on so many of these issues. The fact that the nominalists had so simplified the landscape was a big factor in what survived. The Via Antiqua was harder to transmit than the simple nominalist framework.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    At the end of the day, it's not about Quine vs Bunge. It's about whether or not we ourselves agree or disagree with what they're saying. Who knows? Maybe they're both wrong.Arcane Sandwich

    Good points.

    There are many key points that I disagree with him, for example I don't accept his dichotomy of conceptual existence and real existence (there's only real existence as far as I'm concerned).Arcane Sandwich

    For the sake of simplicity I removed from a recent post the comment, "The trick for anyone opposing Quinian Actualism is drawing out the relation between conceptual and real existence."

    The reason I like the incorporation of Bunge into the thread has to do with what I called the precritical view, which is what I see as the proper starting point. If we start with the view that existence is not a predicate we are likely doing little more than parroting some popular philosophical idea. I mean, if everyone on the forum had a degree in (the exact same area) of philosophy, then sure, we could pick up a controversy at the most complex and developed juncture. But it is far from the truth that everyone has a degree in philosophy, much less the exact same area of philosophy. On such a forum the precritical view cannot be wholly ignored. Bunge provides confidence to the one who thinks it might be a dumb question to ask why existence can't be a predicate.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    If all of their dispositions to verbal behavior under all possible sensory stimulations were the same, then what would happen if they started talking to each other?Apustimelogist

    Doesn't the quote you provide imply that, if they started talking to each other, they may talk past each other entirely? If, "the meanings or ideas expressed in their identically triggered and identically sounded utterances could diverge radically," then they could simply talk past each other. Are you saying that even if they do talk past each other, they won't tend to register each other's speech as inscrutable?

    Quine clearly thinks that inscrutability of reference is not a barrier to communicationApustimelogist

    What definition of "inscrutable" would you offer, such that inscrutable reference poses no barrier to communication?
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    becasue it seems to me to be much the same as what Quine says, but in set-theoretical languageBanno

    Then I'm not sure you appreciate what a living, breathing position opposed to Quine's would look like. If that is right then it makes sense that you couldn't conceive of anyone objecting to Quine.

    Bunge offers an existence predicate where Quine refuses the very idea of an existence predicate. That's the central difference with regard to the issue we have been discussing.

    And here he sensible removes empty sets. Can I point out that this is very close (perhaps identical?) to a set-theoretical version of Quine's "to be is to be the value of a bound variable"?

    ((P) ≠ ∅) ≡ ∃(x) (Px)
    Banno

    If we want to compare Quine and Bunge on existence, shouldn't we compare what Quine says on existence to what Bunge says on existence? You are comparing what Bunge says on the reality of a property to what Quine says on the the existence of individuals. That seems misdirected.

    But even here, Bunge says that a property is real when there is at least one individual that possesses it; whereas Quine says that quantification brings with it ontological commitment (which Bunge in fact explicitly rejects).

    Still, what to think about your "removal of empty sets"? Note that for Quine an empty domain is disallowed simpliciter. There is no formal stricture because there is no existence predicate that would need to incorporate it. Contrariwise, Bunge is giving a definition of a property's being real. For any property, if there is at least one individual that possess it, then it is real, and if there is not at least one individual possessing it, then it is not real. So even if we compare properties to individuals and "real" to "exists," even then there remains the fundamental difference, namely that Bunge provides for himself the ability to say, "Property P is not real," whereas Quine refuses to provide for himself the ability to say, "X does not exist."

    (The standard move of appealing to the empty set in order to characterize existence is precisely what Quine objected to, because that appeal inevitably presupposes some kind of existence predication.)

    And the answer given is much the same as that offered by first-order logic.Banno

    If this is true, then it's only because first-order logic has abandoned Quine's understanding of quantification. For Quine nothing "Pegasizes."

    (Hopefully @Arcane Sandwich will clarify the issue as well as any mistakes I've made.)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    The trouble starts when "Some sirens are beautiful" is treated as a non-empty set;Banno

    's post anticipates this objection if you continue reading the quotes in sequential order, eventually arriving at:

    (i) x exists conceptually = df For some set C of constructs, ECx;
    (ii) x exists really = df For some set Θ of things, EΘx.
    For example the Pythagorean theorem exists in the sense that it belongs in Euclidean geometry. Surely it did not come into existence before someone in the Pythagorean school invented it. But it has been in conceptual existence, i.e. in geometry, ever since. Not that geometry has an autonomous existence, i.e. that it subsists independently of being thought about. It is just that we make the indispensable pretence that constructs exist provided they belong in some body of ideas - which is a roundabout fashion of saying that constructs exist as long as there are rational beings capable of thinking them up. Surely this mode of existence is neither ideal existence (or existence in the Realm of Ideas) nor real or physical existence. To invert Plato's cave metaphor we may say that ideas are but the shadows of things - and shadows, as is well known, have no autonomous existence.
    — Bunge (1977: 157)

    -

    But if our domain is Greek myths, we are welcome to say that "There are beautiful sirens"Banno

    If we want to depart from Quine then we are welcome to say that. And we should depart from Quine, so I agree that we are welcome to say that.

    One could retort that in "quantifying over" myth-concepts we are rightly committing to their existence, but for Quine there are no existing myth-concepts, and therefore it is incorrect to "quantify over" them. The disagreement itself is a substantial existence-dispute over the existence of myth-concepts like Pegasus, and if one cannot "quantify over" myth-concepts then one cannot have the disagreement over their existence.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference


    Although I have only skimmed it, I think Klima's, "St. Anselm's Proof," (formal citation) (original chapter) would be an excellent paper for a reading group. It covers most everything we are talking about here (intentional identity, reference, interlocutors' possibilia, Quine, systemic impasse...). It would also be engaging given how interested people are in Anselm's proof.

    Eventually I want to either do a reading group on this, essences, or else universals. Universals would be the most accessible, but any of them would contribute to mitigating the ignorance and prejudice surrounding these topics.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    The idea of existence as quantification is rather, wherever I have seen it presented, that people come with their ontologies, and we can now examine them in terms of quantification (rather than say entailment) in order to determine what their ontological commitments are—not "all philosophers should accept the same set of universal ontological commitments, which include anything we can possibly speak of (but don't worry about this being too broad because ontological commitments now carry no weight at all)". This makes the whole notion of Quine's approach as a "test" between theories meaningless.Count Timothy von Icarus

    This is a key point in my opinion. If a logical system is to be able to accommodate various different ontologies, which can then be compared to one another, then it cannot have existence- or ontology-commitments. And of course there is an important sense in which Quine's system aspires to have this character, but a system which has this character cannot define existence into its implicit formal semantics. One cannot test two competing theories if one cannot recognize that one of the theories is quantifying over non-existents. And if one cannot test two competing theories then one cannot argue, and if one cannot argue then one cannot do what logic was invented to do.

    More simply, when Quine says that "to be is to be the value of a bound variable," he is not talking about existence, but rather about putative existence. "When you bind a variable you take the referent(s) to exist," not, "When you bind a variable the referent(s) exist(s)."

    Well, at least for Quine there is only one logic (justifying that is another thing.)Count Timothy von Icarus

    Well, the idea is that when Quine runs up against an interlocutor who is quantifying over what Quine holds to not exist, Quine will appeal to the meta-language (instead of running the risk of begging the question by appealing to his own domain). In doing this Quine is inevitably "quantifying over" possibilia in the meta language. That's how you talk to another human being you disagree with, after all.

    Then the deeper point is that whether you appeal to the meta language or an object language (that can handle the disagreement), what you've got to do is give arguments for your position. The only reason Quine would appeal to the meta language is because his object language lacks the resources to adjudicate the dispute. If Quine stuck to his guns and refused to quantify over possibilia then he would not be allowed the move of telling his opponents that entities in their domain do not exist. That is, a logically consistent Quine cannot argue with anyone, because argument involves showing your interlocutor that something they believe to exist, does not.

    In other words:

    ...for what is central to Quine's criterion is that one cannot quantify over entities without incurring ontological commitment to those entities. To use quantifiers to refer to entities while denying that one is ontologically committed is to fail to own up to one's commitments, and thereby engage in a sort of intellectual doublethink. Quantification is the basic mode of reference to objects, and reference to objects is always ontologically committing.Ontological Commitment | SEP

    If one cannot refer to an entity that one is not ontologically committed to, then one cannot engage an interlocutor who believes differently than oneself. The pluralists should be especially wary of such a scheme.

    This sounds like the anti-metaphysical movement redux.Count Timothy von Icarus

    It is, but at least in this case, "They know not what they do."

    ---

    Yes and no. What I would rather is that "existence/being" should be declared meaningless, dead by the thousand cuts of equivocation and ambiguity.J

    Then what are Sider and his opponent disagreeing on when they posit two different ontological structures? Existence is what people argue over, @J. Get rid of 'existence' and you've gotten rid of every possible disagreement. For example, when we disagree over an interpretation of Quine we are disagreeing over the existence of evidence for an interpretation. Then we can go to his texts (which is something we have not at all done in this thread) and adjudicate the question of what exists in those texts. Get rid of existence and you've gotten rid of every disagreement. I don't know that you have the slightest conception of what you are talking about.

    "Now I completely agree that this [Quine's motto] tells us next to nothing. [i.e. it is trivial.] (In particular, it is neutral about some of the uses of "exist" that traditional metaphysics wants to privilege as "real existence" or "what being means" or some such.). But nor should it be controversial."J

    The possibilism debate isn't resolved with a quip. Seriously, go read a paper on the possibilism debate. Inform yourself a bit before you offer an opinion. You don't even seem to understand the stakes or the motivation behind Quine's quip.

    no matter what words we use for our labelsJ

    Clearly you are the one who struggles with metaphysical superglue. No one is fretting over the token e-x-i-s-t-e-n-c-e.

    What it shows is that structure -- which is what we care aboutJ

    "Is what" => <the existing feature>. If we care about the structure of the world, then we care about how the world exists. Structure1 represents one way in which the world exists, and Structure2 represents another way in which the world exists. When you say, "The world's structure is Structure2," you have made an existence claim. You have said, "Structure2 exists as a feature of the world and Structure1 does not." And when you say, "The world's structure is not Structure1," you have quantified over something that is non-existent-but-possible.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Quine clearly thinks that inscrutability of reference is not a barrier to communicationApustimelogist

    Why do you think that?
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    So where is Quine going wrong?Apustimelogist

    Good question. Only paraphrases of Quine have been offered, based on the gavagai example (which Quine himself claims is not the ground of his doctrine).

    Still, if we take the conclusion to be inscrutability of reference, then anyone who accepts (1) and (2) must admit that the argument fails, at least if (1) and (2) are more certain than the counter-premises in an argument for inscrutability.Leontiskos

    ...but if someone thinks they can reconstruct an argument for the inscrutability of reference that overcomes the facts that we can communicate and learn new languages, they are certainly welcome to try.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    (i) x exists conceptually = df For some set C of constructs, ECx;
    (ii) x exists really = df For some set Θ of things, EΘx.
    — Bunge (1977: 157)

    I want to preempt an objection that I find quite tired, and it is related to the pre-critical story I told above. Someone will inevitably come along and object to conceptual existence on the grounds of parsimony, behaviorism, "reification," or something else like this. The point will be as follows:

    • "I found a weakness in your theory, therefore your theory is wrong or unacceptable."

    Granting for the sake of argument that a weakness was truly found, the conclusion simply does not follow. We are engaged in abductive reasoning: inference to the best explanation. Given this fact, "Imperfect, therefore untenable," is not a valid argument. Gyula Klima illustrates this idea by telling a story about someone who, sitting at the poker table with a straight flush, yells out, "Checkmate!"

    Despite the latest fad in "the cool kids'" clothing, is conceptual existence really that bad, if there is indeed anything wrong with it at all? Given the choice between conceptual existence and a quantificational theory that brings with it very strange and unintuitive ontological concomitants, it would seem that conceptual existence is much to be favored. It also saves predicate logic from an unnecessary and awkward burden.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Shorter: I can distinguish Pegasus from a phoenix. They're not the same fictional creature. Neither of them exists, so how is it even possible for me to distinguish them? Most of the time, reference is far from being inscrutable. And even in those cases in which it is, it can cease to be inscrutable. Unknown references are not the same thing as unknowable references.Arcane Sandwich

    Yep, good points. :up:

    It sounds as if one agrees with anything that Aquinas said, then one has magically converted to Catholicism. But this makes no sense to me.Arcane Sandwich

    Oddly enough, many years ago there was a group in the UK called something like, "Atheists for Aquinas." It was a bunch of philosophically-inclined atheists who really enjoyed reading Aquinas. There is a syllogistic density to his prose that some people find very attractive (and others abhor!).

    But I think it's good for a philosophy forum to mix in thinkers like Harman, Bunge, or Aquinas. It helps resist an overly homogenous and narrow philosophical canon, and it helps move us towards thought-based assessments rather than authority-based assessments. And to be fair, there are a lot of members here who are open to other ways of thinking. This thread isn't a great representative of TPF on that score. Still, I would never casually drop the "E" word on TPF, as fascist Tim did earlier. :lol:

    Edit: I also want to add that earlier, when I pointed out someone who is devoted to a very narrow tradition in a very narrow slice of history, I was accused of doing the same thing in terms of the medieval period. The difference is the difference between two decades of a narrow tradition and two millennia of a broad tradition. Medievals engaged and incorporated everyone, including Christian, Jewish, Islamic, and pagan thinkers. The continuity beginning with Plato and ending in the 15th century is quite remarkable. "Antiquated" was not a slur that had much power. Everything was fair game, and this led to an increasingly robust tradition. What we now find in the English-speaking world is the opposite: the yellow "do not cross" line is erected behind Descartes if not Russell, and you end up with a lot of relatively isolated thinkers who simply cannot cope with the perennial questions of philosophy, such as the perennial task of doing more than simply ignoring common language use.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference


    Thank you. Very interesting. Great quotes, and I especially liked the first one, but his points on the existential quantifier also seem very good. At some point you will have to write up a thread on your view of Scientism, because it is largely a pejorative term here. <This thread> was the closest thing we've had, of late.

    Note: The "R" in "ERx" is meant to be a subscript, but this forum doesn't seem to have the option for subscripts.Arcane Sandwich

    That did confuse me a bit. ERx

    E[sub]R[/sub]x
    

    Surely most contemporary philosophers hold that ∃ formalizes both the logical concept "some" and the ontological concept of existence. I shall argue that this is a mistake. — Bunge (1977: 155)

    Just for fun and on the topic of existential quantifiers, since Aquinas came up earlier:

    ...However, as I have argued in detail elsewhere,[3] Kenny’s objection fails on several counts.

    In the first place, Aquinas simply does not have a notion equivalent to the Fregean notion of an existential quantifier. In fact, a notion that would come closest to this notion in Aquinas’s conceptual arsenal would be regarded by him not as a concept of existence, but as a signum quantitatis, namely, a signum particulare, the syncategorematic concept expressed by the Latin terms ‘quidam’, ‘aliquid’ or their equivalents, which render a proposition to which they are prefixed a particular, as opposed to a universal, singular or indefinite proposition (as in, ‘Quidam homo est animal’ = ‘Some man is an animal’, as opposed to ‘Every man is an animal’, ‘Socrates is an animal’ or ‘A man is an animal’, respectively). In any case, Kenny’s reason for holding that Aquinas would have to use in his argument the notion of specific existence, and, correspondingly, the notion of nominal as opposed to real essence,[4] is his unjustified assumption that Aquinas would take a phoenix by definition to be a fictitious bird as we do...
    Gyula Klima, Aquinas' Real Distinction and Its Role in a Causal Proof of God's Existence
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    We needed some kind of "foothold",Moliere

    Yes, I agree. This is what was talking about earlier with "empathy" (though I don't think that is the right word for it).

    But until you have that it's a nothing, right? If we don't even recognize something as a language, for instance...Moliere

    Yes, but if something is not linguistic then it does not constitute a reference of any kind, scrutable or inscrutable, no? Or rather, if we do not recognize something as a linguistic sign, then it cannot be inscrutable, for we would never say, "That non-reference is an inscrutable reference," or, "We will never figure out what that thing is referring to, namely that thing which we do not believe to be referring to anything."

    In fact I want to say that in order to identify something as referential one must already have a foothold of one kind or another. Without such a foothold there is insufficient reason to posit a referential reality (i.e. an intentional sign).
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Eventually, through trial and error, you can learn it! Even if you knew nothing of it!

    Which is kind of the puzzle.... in a way.
    Moliere

    Yes, thank you. You're the first "inscrutabilist" who has owned up to the "puzzle." :grin: :party:

    1. If reference is inscrutable, then we cannot communicate (or learn new languages).
    2. But we can communicate (and learn new languages).
    3. Therefore, Reference is not inscrutable.

    The "inscrutabilist" does not want to double-down on the modus ponens, as he knows it to be false:

    4. If reference is inscrutable, then we cannot communicate (or learn new languages).
    5. Reference is inscrutable
    6. Therefore, We cannot communicate (or learn new languages).

    Note that for someone like myself who does not think reference is inscrutable, there is no puzzle. In fact (3) proves that reference is not inscrutable. But again, one must take care to properly identify Quine's conclusion. I don't doubt that it was not sheer inscrutability of reference. Still, if we take the conclusion to be inscrutability of reference, then anyone who accepts (1) and (2) must admit that the argument fails, at least if (1) and (2) are more certain than the counter-premises in an argument for inscrutability.

    First, the inscrutability of reference applies even to our own language.Moliere

    I agree.

    Second: I'd take it that since we're talking to one another we can't ever deny that we're communicating, unless we're communicating about when we're not communicating to correct communication. So if we can connect a philosophical belief that we're not communicating that'd be damning for it -- not that'd it be false, but it'd indicate we're not communicating and thereby, in spite of all of our efforts, we're linguistically solipsistic.Moliere

    Right: you can affirm that reference is inscrutable and therefore we are not communicating, but then what are you doing here on TPF? Probably you would have to abandon the forum (among other things) if you believed that.

    "Reference", as a philosophical concept, is the target of the "gavagai" criticism -- as well as various metaphysical theses people might have drawn from various notions of reference.

    It's not so much that we can't communicate or learn. It's that there's no fact of the matter, in the sense of a true sentence which refers to the world in the same way that "gavagai' refers to the world, which will decide how "gavagai" refers.
    Moliere

    But isn't is possible to learn the Native's language? And if I do learn the language, then haven't I learned the "fact of the matter"--which is of course conventional--about how 'gavagai' refers?

    Is there a particular bit you want me to discuss?Moliere

    Not necessarily. I was just trying to cross-reference some similar ideas.

    (The problem with this thread is similar to the problem of 'gavagai'. There is no common, public text that we can all look at to figure out what we are talking about. There's only two sentences and a link to a Wikipedia article, which naturally makes for a widely diverging thread.)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Most people want to avoid the thesis that existence is a property, and that it can be represented with a first-order predicate, such as "E", instead of the existential quantifier, "∃".

    And why do most people want to avoid that thesis? Because they somehow believe that to treat existence as a property is naive...
    Arcane Sandwich

    If we just step back and for a moment forget all of the philosophy we've read, how would we view existence? In a pre-critical sense it would seem that existence is a property or predicate of concepts. That's how we speak, after all: "Horses exist. Unicorns do not exist." "Johnson died: he no longer exists." The basic insight of this starting point is that the domain for existence predications must be existence-neutral in some sense. If it were not then existence predications would make no sense.

    I don't think that's a bad starting point, and in fact it looks to be more reasonable than Quine's approach. Of course Quine's approach is motivated by different considerations, but if his considerations are more idiosyncratic than the motivations of a comprehensive theory, then his theory is eo ipso going to be less plausible. That's perhaps what is happening: Quine is talking about some specialized thing called "existence," which is different from existence. A kind of equivocation is occurring. Beyond that, existence is a difficult thing to reckon with, and therefore the way that Quine just hides it away under the quantificational rug is appealing to systematizers, who don't want to be bothered by the complexity of difficult realities. "When you bind variables you are involved in the assumption that they exist, and that's all we should say about it. Natural language is confused and refuge is found in our system which doesn't even try to reckon with natural language."

    20th Century thinkers like Mario BungeArcane Sandwich

    What is the birds-eye account of Bunge's view, and what sort of philosophical considerations and background are informing such a view?
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    reference is inscrutableMoliere

    Do you believe that we are successfully communicating with each other right now? Because it seems to me that if reference were inscrutable, then this would be impossible. And if a foreign word were inscrutable, then we would never be able to learn foreign languages. But we are successfully communicating with each other, and it is not impossible to learn foreign languages, therefore reference is not inscrutable.

    (See my post <here> or Arcane Sandwich's posts)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Sorry for diverting the thread too much, thoMoliere

    Threads with a two-sentence OP are usually a runaway train after the first dozen posts. Nothing to divert. ;)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    We need the mean, but disagree upon what the mean is.Moliere

    The first point about the mean is that if you think you are identifying it then you must be able to point to both extremes. Many people can only point to one.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    "But how can you include something in the domain if you haven't even conceived of it?" Well, we just did.Banno

    All you did was pretend to do something. I could do the same thing, "There is an x such that x is the king of France. Clearly a quantification." There is no work being done here.

    We could examine Quine's statement as if it is a definition of existence, but I take it that it is uncontroversial that it will fail as a definition (hence the "joke").

    ...that an entity can figure as a value of a bound variable in his theory is, according to Quine, equivalent to the assumption that such an entity exists; it is impossible to quantify over entities of which existence is not, eo ipso, assumed. Put more precisely: according to Quine the notion of existence just means the capability of featuring as a value of a bound variable. To assume that something exists is to assume nothing less, and nothing more...Lukáš Novák, Can We Speak About That Which Is Not?, 159

    But a simple problem here is that we do not understand existence to be parasitic upon our language or our accounting. Accepting for the sake of argument, <If I quantify over X, then I am taking X to exist>, no actual relation to existence is at stake. Quantification does not entail existence, because we often quantify over things that do not exist (intentionally and unintentionally).

    The only truth in Quine's claim is this: when someone uses variables within a sentence which presupposes the existence of its variables, they are presupposing the existence of these variables. This is little more than, "If you think something exists, then you think it exists." It has no traction on real existence.

    Other problems:

    Thus theories that allow their variables to take non-existent individuals as their values are automatically understood as possibilist, to the effect that those who share Quine’s dislike towards the overpopulated Meinongian slum feel under pressure to construe their theories so that they enable reference to actual entities only. That results in various technical problems (the Barcan Formula[50] and the like) requiring sophisticated workarounds, which however tend to introduce various ersatz-entities into the actualist systems like individual essences (Plantinga) or bare individuals “in limbo” (Transparent Intensional Logic), in effect barely distinguishable from the abhorred possibilia.

    [50] If it is possible that there is an F, then (actually) there is something that is possibly an F: ◇∃x(Fx) → ∃x◇(Fx).
    Lukáš Novák, Can We Speak About That Which Is Not?, 159
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    And why do most people want to avoid that thesis? Because they somehow believe that to treat existence as a property is naive, if not outright scholastic. After all, didn't Kant refute the ontological argument by pointing out that existence is not a predicate?Arcane Sandwich

    To add to this: folks on this forum don't know how to argue. Many of them don't even properly understand what an argument is, and therefore to get them to give real arguments is like pulling teeth. What stands in the place of argument? Appeals to "the cool kids." In order to prove a point, one simply cites a well-known philosopher they have never read and tacks a label onto their opponent: "naive/direct realist," "idealist," "communist," "essentialist," "Analytic," "Continental." Take your pick.

    That is what popular/online philosophy has become, "Appeal to popular authorities and never accept the burden of proof."

    (This is why I resisted your criticism of Bob Ross' long argument. Ross is one of the rare members who gives arguments, so I don't mind if they are a bit unwieldy.)

    In many places today, for example, no one bothers any longer to ask what a person thinks. The verdict on someone's thinking is ready at hand as long as you can assign it to its corresponding, formal category: conservative, reactionary, fundamentalist, progressive, revolutionary. Assignment to a formal scheme suffices to render unnecessary coming to terms with the contentJoseph Ratzinger, Conscience and Truth
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    How about we start by analyzing these completely irrational themes that underlie these sorts of discussions, instead of digging our heals and just blurting out nonsensical accusations such as "You don't really understand Quine's point."Arcane Sandwich

    Agreed, and I think the "cool kids" point is spot-on.

    Here's another of the irrational themes:

    ...I think it is worth noticing in the second [criticism] the smooth transition from “the description has/does not have a referent” to “the referent of the description does/does not exist” [...] What is interesting in the smoothness of this transition is how easy it is nowadays to have an unreflected, and accordingly deep conviction that whatever more restricted meanings existence may have, the full scope of being is that of the possible range of reference of the expressions of our language.[7]Gyula Klima, St. Anselm's Proof: A Problem of Reference, Intentional Identity and Mutual Understanding, 2

    Why does Analytic philosophy think that if a description has a referent, then that referent must exist? Why does it tie up reference with existence? I realize the idea goes back through Russell, but I don't see much merit to it. We handle references all the time without assuming that reference and existence go hand in hand, whether with opinion-claims, theory-claims, fiction-claims, goal-claims, history-claims, imagination-claims, etc.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    So if we insist on using "existence" and asking what it means for something to exhibit this feature, all we can do is point to the one characteristic they have in common, "being the value of a bound variable."J

    But this is clearly wrong. Consider, "There are things that exist which we have never conceived." To be is not to be the value of a bound variable. There are things that exist which are not attached to any variable. Existence is not bound by our minds. The vista of reality is not nearly so narrow as that.

    I'm recommending we drop the word entirelyJ

    but I am not seeing how this "solution" resolves any of themCount Timothy von Icarus

    The constant problem with Analytical philosophy is that it wants to throw out language and substitute something far inferior: an artificial and brittle system. "We're going to throw out the word 'existence' from the language and replace it with stuff that is more suited to my idiosyncratic philosophy." Nevermind that within a decade or two it always turns out that the newfangled philosophy had surprisingly little to offer. The arrogance of someone who decides to revise language itself in favor of their "systems" is really quite breathtaking.

    quantifier varianceJ

    Quantifier variance is itself proof that existence goes beyond quantification. The domain of the real differs from person to person, and therefore if we are not to be solipsists then we must engage an understanding of existence that goes beyond our own narrows ideas (i.e. we must involve ourselves in ampliation).

    This comes back to the point on page 12:

    From this Buridanian perspective, one cannot make claims about the relationships between language and reality from some external, God-like position, from the position of the user of a meta-language, who has a certain “context-free” or “context-neutral” access to the object-language and “the world”, both as it is in itself and as it is conceived by users of the object-language, that is to say, the totality of semantic values of items in that language.Gyula Klima, Quine, Wyman, and Buridan: Three Approaches to Ontological Commitment, 10

    Quine's idea that we have independent access to the meta-language and the object-language is absurd, and it underlies all of this. There is no objective-quantification apart from subjective-quantification. We do not possess the language of God, which would overcome all individual disagreements and force existence into our personal, solipsistic horizon.
  • p and "I think p"
    Not really, since "I think" as a attributer/weakener dominates English usage, any other use is very unusual and requires clarification. Far from being learned in either philosopher's work, I nonetheless see two possibilities for a "philosophical" "I think".hypericin

    My take: If Jones says “I think p,” Jones is conscious of his own thinking of p, and is therefore self-conscious. Maybe he says that he thinks without realizing that he thinks, but that is what would be unusual. Generally if I say that I am doing something I realize that I am doing it, and this form of self-narration constitutes a form of self-consciousness. See also my post <here>.

    You are effectively pointing to a kind of slang that has become very common, where someone who is very unsure of p and is therefore wary of saying, “I know p,” will instead resort to saying, “I think p,” which means, “I have a mere opinion that p is true, but my opinion may well be wrong.” If you want, you can take my word that the OP is not about that sort of weak opinion. I don’t know that I will say more, as I don’t want to belabor the point.
  • A Thomistic Argument For God's Existence From Composition
    What I am really doing, by my lights, is making an argument from contingency and necessity as it relates to composition; basically by way of arguing that an infinite series of composition is impossible because it would be an infinite series of contingent things of which each lacks the power to exist themselves.Bob Ross

    Yes, I can see how your OP could be read that way.

    Yes and no. If you were to take a dead frog and “sew it back to together”, then yes you are right; but if you configure the frog’s pieces to be exactly as it were when it was alive; then it must now be alive again….no?Bob Ross

    I don’t think so. Consider: when someone dies we can transplant their organs into other bodies, but we cannot give them an organ transplant to resuscitate them. For example, a heart transplant requires a living body, and will not work on a body that has only recently died.

    What’s the problem with that? Are you saying that it doesn’t account for a soul?Bob Ross

    Well it’s not Aristotelian (or Thomistic). It misses what Oderberg calls reverse mereological essentialism. Or: yes, it doesn’t “account for” a soul.

    That’s true, but I say that because Aristotle’s proof only works if we think of a thing having the potential to remain the same through time and that potential being actualized through time. Otherwise, the argument fails to produce a being that would fit classical theism which is the perpetual sustainer of everything; instead, we just get a kind of ‘kalam cosmological argument’ where this being starts everything off moving.

    By ‘motion’, Aristotle is not just talking about, e.g., an apple flying in the air: he is talking about the change which an apple that is just sitting there is undergoing by merely remaining the same. That’s the only reason, e.g., Ed Feser’s “Aristotelian Proof” gets off the ground in the first place.
    Bob Ross

    Do you have references to the places in Aristotle and Feser you are thinking of?

    What I would say is that the argument from motion begins with the premise, “Things are in motion,” and it concludes with an Unmoved Mover. What is unmoved would apparently “remain the same through time.”
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    To be is to be the value of a bound variable. Which is Quine's approach.Banno

    My preferred solution, as many of you know. I've seen you refer to this as Quine's "joke" about being, but it's about time we took him seriously.J

    We know it's a joke because we know it's wrong. But if you don't have anything better, I guess you just assert it while laughing.

    isn't there a way of posing the question "What are beliefs?"J

    That's one of the reasons why we know Quine's approach is wrong. We know that when Quine proposes a logical sentence a thought or belief of Quine's is involved in that proposal, and we know that that thought is not nothing, but we also know that on Quine's theory it cannot be anything. We know that even for Quine the I think is able to accompany his representations.

    The reason "ordinary speakers" balk at these theories is because they are bad theories:

    What is interesting in the smoothness of this transition is how easy it is nowadays to have an unreflected, and accordingly deep conviction that whatever more restricted meanings existence may have, the full scope of being is that of the possible range of reference of the expressions of our language.[7]

    In medieval thought, this certainly was not the prevailing idea. According to the medieval view, inspired originally by Aristotle’s Perihermeneias, reference, following meaning, is a property of linguistic expressions only insofar as they express thoughts, i.e., mental acts of users of the language. Accordingly, linguistic expressions refer to what their users intend by them to refer to in a given context, that is, what they think of while using the expression either properly, or improperly.[8] So referring was held to be a context-dependent property of terms: according to this view, the same expression in different propositional contexts may refer to different things, or refer to something in one context, while refer to nothing in another. As it was spelled out systematically already in the freshly booming logical literature of the 12th century in the theory of ampliation[9], terms that are actually not true of anything may have referents, or in the current terminology, supposita, in the context of intentional verbs, such as “think”, “want”, “imagine” and the like. But, to be sure, these referents are not to be construed as beings (entia), or objects, simpliciter, but as objects of thought — according to 13th century terminology, beings of reason, entia rationis.[10]
    Gyula Klima, St. Anselm's Proof: A Problem of Reference, Intentional Identity and Mutual Understanding, 2

    See also:

    So, it might seem that Buridan’s semantics, represented by this semantic system, is equally committed to mere possiblia, that is to say, Quine’s possible charges are justified. But the tricky thing about Buridan’s semantics is that it makes no distinction comparable to the modern distinction between object-language and meta-language, so it has no meta-language comparable to the meta-language in which we see Quine’s charges justified.

    Buridan has only one language to talk about the world as well as about the language and its semantic relations to the world. And in that one language we cannot truly say that there are mere possibilia, or that something that is merely possible exists. Accordingly, from this Buridanian perspective, the issue of ontological commitment in terms of a meta-linguistic description of the relationship between language and the world is radically ill-conceived.

    From this Buridanian perspective, one cannot make claims about the relationships between language and reality from some external, God-like position, from the position of the user of a meta-language, who has a certain “context-free” or “context-neutral” access to the object-language and “the world”, both as it is in itself and as it is conceived by users of the object-language, that is to say, the totality of semantic values of items in that language. We only have this one language we actually speak (where, of course, it doesn’t matter which particular human language we take this one language to be), and we can speak about those semantic values only by means of the context-dependent ways of referring that are afforded to us by this language.
    Gyula Klima, Quine, Wyman, and Buridan: Three Approaches to Ontological Commitment, 10
  • p and "I think p"
    For one, self-consciously thinking p would be rendered as something like "I'm thinking about thinking p", not "I think p".hypericin

    If someone says "I think p" they are thinking p self-consciously. This seems pretty basic, but perhaps you are thinking in extraordinarily mundane terms instead of philosophical terms. For example, perhaps you think that someone who says, "I think Putin is a nut," is not thinking self-consciously. That may be, but the I think of Kant or Rodl is not based in that sort of off-the-cuff, half-conscious utterance. In that half-conscious sense, thinking p and saying "I think p" would be exactly the same.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    A good rule of thumb for everyone is to keep in mind that, during a conversation, if it just so happens that good common sense needs to be praised, then something about the conversation has gone terribly wrong.Arcane Sandwich

    Maybe now is a good time to tell you that a fitting subtitle for the forum would be as follows:



    :sweat:
  • p and "I think p"
    I have in mind speaking in a language you don't understand. Speaking on a subject you don't understand. Lying.hypericin

    Let's revisit your original claim (my bolding):

    accurately notating that you are indeed thinking-p, and reflecting on your own thought, can both be represented as "I think p" in English.hypericin

    If someone lies or says something they do not understand then we cannot "accurately notate that they are indeed thinking-p." My "utterance" was meant to track that idea of yours wherein we accurately notate. Whether one can inaccurately notate "I think p" without self-consciously thinking p is sort of an interesting question, but it looks to be beside the point.

    So if the three cases you gave are all inaccurate notations of "I think p," then it looks like they won't function as counterexamples.
  • p and "I think p"
    - Okay, but then what would be a case where one utters "I think p" without thinking about thinking p? Or where one utters "p" without thinking p? I can't think of any such cases.