Comments

  • Assertion
    If you like; They have acted.Banno

    My point is, there you almost go... reifying the act and the performing of it as distinct things.
  • Assertion
    But then we'd need a different term to refer to the way assertions are commonly demarcated -- that is, as occurrences of sentences where some individual is using them to judge the content as true.J

    Well, we do have "the question whether or not... "
  • Assertion
    their having performed that act.Banno

    Why not performed that performance, acted that act, etc...

    Austin names some of them phonic, phatic, rhetic, which together form the locutionary act and lead on to the illocutionary and perlocutionary acts.Banno

    Human linguistic behaviour is no doubt infinitely varied, but let's look for system where there is apparently system. Declarative sentences seem to fit an interesting pattern (logic). Perhaps what confounds our attempts to define that pattern is the inscrutability: the sentence is a machine for pointing predicates at things, but it doesn't really happen, it's all made up. We have to interpret, as you say. And there's no ultimate right interpretation of the game.

    So why multiply entities and forces as though they are physical fact?
  • Assertion
    Nor could we fit the idea of "occurrence of a sentence" into our actual lives,J

    I'm trying to see why you think this. Have you considered referring to the "string of words"? Thus casting it as a linguistic entity of (speaking loosely) lower type?

    Somewhat like referring to the table as a pile of wood?
  • Assertion
    the mere occurrence of a sentence does not amount to an assertion of that sentence.Banno

    I would say, the mere occurrence of an assertion (claim, statement etc) doesn't amount to an assertion (claim, statement etc) of or about that assertion (claim, statement etc), but that doesn't in the least prevent it from being an instance of that very kind of linguistic entity.
  • Assertion
    Okay, well these are clearly two different claims:

    1. The cat is on the mat
    2. I think that the cat is on the mat
    Michael

    Yes. In other words, two different assertions?bongo fury

    Yes.Michael

    And 1. is no less a claim (or assertion) for lacking a personal endorsement (or other assertion sign).

    And the string "the cat is on the mat" is no less a claim (etc.) even for being embedded in

    3. It's false that the cat is on the mat.
  • Assertion
    So if I say: "an example of a proposition is: 'The cat is on the mat.'" I am saying something like: "it is true that S is an example of P," but crucially, not asserting S.Count Timothy von Icarus

    Rather, I think that, if you say: "an example of a proposition (assertion etc) is: 'The cat is on the mat.'" you are saying something like: "it is true that S is an example of a proposition (assertion etc) but, crucially, one that I don't necessarily endorse."
  • Assertion
    It's an assertion about a "name" right.Count Timothy von Icarus

    What is? I don't follow. My "it" wasn't a name, and it wasn't about a name. It was your example token of the assertion "the cat is on the mat". You had seemed to suggest that its being used as an example of an assertion prevented it from being an assertion. I question that suggestion.

    Incidentally, I doubt whether using it as an example of a declarative sentence or of a statement or of a proposition or of a claim prevents it being any of those. Indeed, it clouds the issue to take any clear distinction between any of those varieties of hot air for granted.

    On the other hand, names seem to stand apart as a different kind of hot air. No? (E.g. they seem to be generally simpler in semantic structure and function.) And I wondered whether considering the situation of using a name as an example of a name, and this not appearing to cause it to cease being a name, might lead you to reconsider your reasoning in the case of assertions.

    Perhaps I ought to have chosen a different analogy. Is a table not a table when presented as an example of a table?

    If I use it mostly as a chair, perhaps it ceases being a table. But then I'm hardly presenting it as an example of a table.
  • Assertion
    two different claims:Michael

    Yes. In other words, two different assertions?
  • Assertion
    Of course, if "the cat is on the mat," is used as an example, it isn't being asserted,Count Timothy von Icarus

    Is it then not an assertion? Is a name not a name when it's an example?
  • Assertion
    I don't think this thread will ultimately get away from those sorts of puzzles, namely the puzzles of how and why the boundaries between the meta-language and object-language exist, and whether they ought to.Leontiskos

    :100:

    It is interesting, though, that Banno thinks Frege's judgment-stroke is a functional symbol that can simply be nested contextually. So his difference with Frege has to do with whether the judgment-stroke belongs to the object language.Leontiskos

    Does this help with the puzzles of how and why and whether they ought?
  • Assertion
    There are so many points people have made that I'm highly disposed to agreeing or disagreeing with at length. In the end, I prefer one move of chess (cooperative chess :wink: ) at a time, so I won't. But thanks for all contributions.
  • Assertion
    (I wrote a bit about the general topic in <this post>, which is another thread where it came up.)Leontiskos

    Great, I invite people to bring that kind of thing here, if it's off topic there (or wherever).
  • Assertion
    Okay, and what are the questions that are at stake?Leontiskos

    Yep, I'll be trying to contribute.
  • Assertion
    let's not worry about whether it fits Frege's vision. The prefix, however we phrase it - "I hereby assert that...", "I think that...", "I judge that..." etc - does seem to iterate naturally.bongo fury
  • Assertion
    Haha, no, for me it's actually philosophy big deal number one. Lately.
  • Assertion


    I agree that it (the solution) must be about recognising the interplay of object- and meta-language.
  • Assertion
    Haha, no, I do (unironically) think a sentence is an assertion sign. Alright... a naming sign.
  • Assertion
    You know the answer to that.J

    I have the vaguest inkling (as yet) of it being due to the inscrutability of reference.

    What answer should I have known?
  • Assertion


    Right. I think (judge!) that distinguishing a thought from a judgement is an unnecessary complication. Hence my liking for @Banno's framing.
  • Assertion
    I'm suggesting we play with it how we please. You can define clearer rules if you like?

    Srap Tasmaner I was using the turnstile as a shorthand for Frege's judgement stroke, so read "⊢⊢the cat is on the mat" as "I think that I think..." or "I think that I judge..." or whatever. Not as "...is derivable from..."Banno
  • Quine: Reference and Modality
    So in terms of syntax, de dicto is most similar to ☐∃(x)f(x) and de re, to ∃(x)☐(fx), [...]Banno

    Agreed.

    [...] while in terms of semantics de dicto understands necessity as "true in every possible world"...Banno

    Agreed, e.g.

    Note that [problematic statements] (30) and (31) are not to be confused with:

    Necessarily (∃x) (x > 7),

    Necessarily (∃x) (if there is life on the Evening Star then there is life on x),

    which present no problem of interpretation comparable to that presented by (30) and (31). The difference may be accentuated by a change of example: in a game of a type admitting of no tie it is necessary that some one of the players will win, ...
    — Quine p.147

    (There is a winner in each play of the game, there is a richest man in each world, there is always a number greater than 7, or etc.)

    Evidently Quine is ok with the kind of reading you (and Wiki) are calling de dicto.

    However, not so sure about:

    [...] while de re might understand necessity as "true in this (or some) world", a cumbersome notion incompatible with S5.Banno

    Whereas (I think) Quine's objection is to a typical de re reading, that there should be

    ... one player of whom it may be said to be necessary that he win. — Quine p.147

    Not because such a reading (there existing a winner of all possible plays of the game or a richest in all worlds or a greater than 7 in all worlds) is self-evidently non-sensical but because it has arisen through referential opacity, and hence behaves incoherently. E.g.

    What is this number which, according to ["(∃x)(x is necessarily is greater than 7"], is necessarily greater than 7? According to ["9 is necessarily greater than 7"], from which ["(∃x)(x is necessarily is greater than 7"] was inferred, it was 9, that is, the number of planets; but to suppose this would conflict with the fact that ["the number of planets is necessarily greater than 7"] is false. — Quine p.148

    Does this objection hold up? If not why not?

    ... Hmm, chapter 6 of this book is called "Quine on de re and de dicto modality". :nerd:
  • Quine: Reference and Modality
    but we can be much clearer here using modal first order language than was possible in medieval times.Banno

    Isn't that what Quine doubts?

    Is he wrong? How?

    How does possible world semantics restore coherence in the face of referential opacity?

    Asking for a friend.
  • St. Anselm's Proof: A Problem of Reference, Intentional Identity and Mutual Understanding (G. Klima)
    My understanding is that you are saying Quine rejects the idea that existence is a second-order predicate,Leontiskos

    Agreed.

    and therefore Klima is mistaken in his claim, "[this] quite naturally leads to Quine's slogan..."Leontiskos

    Not necessarily, but the claim wants explaining. What is meant to be wrong with the slogan, and what has the doctrine of quantifiers being second order predicates got to do with it?

    Regardless, it makes sense to me that Quine would not want to call the quantifier a second-order predicate per se, but that he would nevertheless admit that it does bear on existence in a second-order manner.Leontiskos

    In what way?
  • St. Anselm's Proof: A Problem of Reference, Intentional Identity and Mutual Understanding (G. Klima)
    Is Quine here abandoning his idea that, "to be is to be a value of a bound variable"?Leontiskos

    No, just the doctrine received from Frege regarding quantifiers as second-order predicates, that is, as attaching to first order predicates in the manner that first order predicates attach to names. This specific doctrine is being dropped.

    Why? Because first order predicates attach to names in a manner that generally assumes the existence of a thing named. Where this is in doubt, the meaningfulness of the sentence is in doubt.

    Quine, as a nominalist, would rather not encourage any similar assumption about a predicate. Let's not have the meaningfulness of a predication depend on the existence of a thing or even a property that the predicate denotes (applies to).

    That would mess up his proposed application of Russell's method of definite descriptions to the task in question, that of asserting an uncontroversially meaningful sentence denying the existence of Pegasus.
  • St. Anselm's Proof: A Problem of Reference, Intentional Identity and Mutual Understanding (G. Klima)
    This account, coupled with the Kantian-Fregean idea of existence as a second-order predicate, i.e., a quantifier, quite naturally leads to Quine’s slogan: “to be is to be a value of a bound variable”.2Klima

    This rang a bell.

    I also am puzzled about the utility and motivation of a second special doctrine which [Geach] puts forward, namely, that quantification is a second-level predicate. He elucidates this doctrine as follows :

    " A first-level predicate can be attached to a name, in order to make an assertion about that which the name stands for ; a second-level predicate can be attached to such a first-level predicate in order to make an assertion about that which it stands for. Quine's misunderstanding of second-level pre-dicates arises from his unwillingness to admit that first-level predicates do stand for anything."

    This doctrine is, as Mr. Geach remarks, to be found in Frege. It is also espoused in my own first book (1934). But neither of these circumstances counts in favour of the doctrine, and Mr. Geach also says nothing to raise the doctrine above the level of a bare pronunciamento. Surely we can understand quantifiers perfectly well with or without classifying them as predicates which make assertions about that which first-level predicates stand for. Nothing is achieved by this move except the creation of an opportunity to talk of first-level predicates as standing for something.
    Quine reply to Geach
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Ummm, what?Darkneos

    People think: reference must be determinate because language can talk physics.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    I assume chatbots and chromosomes are all syntax. Like Chinese rooms. And semantics is the interpretations that we (and future machines conceivably might) add. As Searle argues.

    I agree that this added dimension is what Searle addresses in terms of intention. I grok the "extensionalism" (and nominalism) of Quine and Goodman as trying to bypass the internal psychology. Hence Word and Object rather than Person and Object (as Chisholm had it).

    But no, no one is denying the importance of semantics. (Intentionality if you prefer.)
  • p and "I think p"
    we could devise a more accurate notation “that makes I think internal to p: we may form the letter p by writing, in the shape of a p, the words I think.”J

    A splendid proposal, I say, but improvable. In a spirit of extensionalism, we may remove the thinker from the analysis, and instead form a suitable word shape from the words "this sentence token hereby asserts that".

    Pat's objection is likewise less psychological. He says

    it might as well read, "this sentence token declares true that". But either way, you seem to be confusing utterance or inscription in the object language with utterance or inscription in the meta-language. Or at any rate, it's not my experience that a declarative sentence usually refers to its own semantic properties. And if it did so, the effort would be unnecessary, as is well known. The prefix would be entirely redundant."

    I think he has a point, about assertion and declaring true. But I disagree about redundancy. Thinking you can speak (utter or inscribe) as though completely in an object language, without referring implicitly to the convention of reference between word and object, albeit the convention of a make-believe and non-physical relation, is magical thinking. Not in the good way of playing the game of pretend, but in the bad way of pretending not to be.
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    Another cause might be the evident separation of convention and pretence (i.e. semantics) from syntax, in many cases. We are ready to add an interpretation to the physical behaviour of a calculator's cogs or capacitors, or to that of a cell's chromosomes. And some of the calculator's mechanical and syntactic behaviour affects display elements that partake in the semantic interpretations that we add; and some of the chromosome's mechanical and syntactic behaviour affects protein production that partakes similarly in our semantic interpretations. Still, the syntactic operations might carry on just as effectively without the interpretations.

    My point being, it almost seems as though meaning is physical after all?

    (Music to the ears of the bio-semioticians?)
  • What does Quine mean by Inscrutability of Reference
    What does Quine mean by the inscrutability of reference?Darkneos

    He means a) the relation of reference not happening to be a physical relation, but instead mere convention, or pretence; and b) the possibility of determining a non-physical relation, from observation of physical behaviours, not happening to be as straightforward as we might think.

    Why b? Who ever thought the possibility of determining a convention from observation of behaviours would be straightforward, and anyway why should that make it impossible?

    Well... people who thought that theories based on observation of the same behaviours should naturally converge towards a unique theory of what the behaviours meant. That's who. And those people being wrong about that would rule out a unique determination, at least.

    Why do people think a unique determination is a reasonable expectation? Quine talks about the consequences, not so much causes, of failure to perceive the indeterminacy. But it seems reasonable to blame this failure on the success of language in talking about real, physical relations. Its unreasonable effectiveness, if you will.
  • Do you consider logic a part of philosophy or its own separate field?
    Logic is the essence of philosophy. Compare:

    Philosophy of science isn't science of philosophy.

    Philosophy of art isn't art of science.

    Whereas, philosophy of logic is logic of philosophy.

    QED
  • Hypostatic Abstraction, Precisive Abstraction, Proper vs Improper Negation
    Trying to put Peirce in either nominalism or Platonism (label or categorize him)Mapping the Medium

    To be fair, you're the one hurling the 'isms' around.

    The irony...
  • Hypostatic Abstraction, Precisive Abstraction, Proper vs Improper Negation
    By labeling,Mapping the Medium

    Again, nominalism isn't a tendency to proliferate labels. Nominalisation is closer to being that.

    By labeling, nominalism often concretizes properties that are actually relational.Mapping the Medium

    Nominalism agrees that nominalisation tends to reify (hypostatize) abstract properties, i.e. suggest they are real like concrete objects. Nominalism opposes that tendency.

    Nominalism doesn't concretize properties because it doesn't reify them, and nominalisation doesn't necessarily concretize properties even when it reifies them. In reifying them it (nominalisation) might posit them as abstract properties (platonism). But if it posits or characterises them as concrete properties, then it's neither nominalist nor platonist.

    You seem to suggest that concretizing amounts to monadising? (Maybe there's a better word for reducing relations to monadic properties.)

    Being concrete is usually opposed to being abstract.

    Being monadic (intrinsic if you like) is usually opposed to being relational.

    The two distinctions are usually kept apart. Does Peirce associate them? Or could you flesh out how you think they correlate? I would be interested in that.

    Nominalism (typically) respects the reality of concrete over abstract, but it has no preference at all for monadic over relational or vice versa.

    Nominalisation may or may not concretize, but it also reifies relations just as readily as monadic properties. As the diagrams on the wiki page for hypostatisation make clear.
  • Hypostatic Abstraction, Precisive Abstraction, Proper vs Improper Negation


    And Hypostatic Abstraction of the Haphazard kind is exacerbated by nominalists who hypocritically hypostatize the very process they like to oppose?

    Could be, I suppose. That hardly explains why you would blame 'nominalism' rather than 'platonism' for the sorry state thus exacerbated.

    I think you were confused by the terminology. Sorry.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nominalization?wprov=sfla1

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nominalism?wprov=sfla1
  • Hypostatic Abstraction, Precisive Abstraction, Proper vs Improper Negation
    But has my thought been influenced by nominalism?

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nominalism?wprov=sfla1

    Or has it been influenced by nominalisation?

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nominalization?wprov=sfla1

    How is this binary question not appropriate?
  • Hypostatic Abstraction, Precisive Abstraction, Proper vs Improper Negation
    You are approaching this from a nominalist position,.Mapping the Medium

    I am? In what sense of nominalist position? That of someone disposed to nominalisation/reification/hypostatisation? Or that of someone opposed to it?