Comments

  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    There is a sense to be made of the difference between the abstract content of an idea and the concrete having of an idea by a person. [...] I’m only taking about the content of the ideas,Pfhorrest

    The "concrete having of an idea by a person" is not relevant to whether ideas are discovered or invented? Or you're not interested in this question despite the discussion title?

    It seems you've made your mind up anyway:

    What I say "idea" here I'm talking about roughly a picture of some way that things might be; a possible state of affairs. All of those possible states of affairs, those ideas that could be had, are already possible; when we "come up with" an idea, we may feel as though we're inventing something, but as the thing we're "coming up with" is just a possibility, and all the possibilities were already possible, then really we've just discovered something.Pfhorrest
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    What you're talking about is trivially true and I'm not contesting it at all.Pfhorrest

    I think you are contesting it. You're effectively saying that ideas can only be discovered and cannot be invented, because ideas are possibilities, and the set of possibilities already exists. I refute that ideas are equivalent to possibilities.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Unless someone "takes" the photograph - which is the analog of "coming up with" the idea - then no ideas/photographs can exist.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    This thus blurs the lines between "making" and "finding" something, between "invention" and "discovery". I'm not saying there's only one and not the other; I'm saying there really isn't any difference between them when you get down to it.Pfhorrest

    And I'm saying that may be true only if you conflate ideas with possibilities.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    Surely every possibility is already possible, right? There is some (infinite) set of things that are possible, and by discovering that something is possible, we don't thereby become the cause of its possibility; it was already a possibility, we just found it among that infinite set of possibilities.

    What I say "idea" here I'm talking about roughly a picture of some way that things might be; a possible state of affairs. All of those possible states of affairs, those ideas that could be had, are already possible; when we "come up with" an idea, we may feel as though we're inventing something, but as the thing we're "coming up with" is just a possibility, and all the possibilities were already possible, then really we've just discovered something.
    Pfhorrest

    You seem to be conflating possibilities and ideas. You say that there exists an infinite set of possibilities and that an idea is a possibility (or a possible state of affairs). You say that "coming up with" an idea is the same as "coming up with" a possibility, and that both of these are just the discovery of a possibility.

    However, a significant difference between ideas and possibilities, I believe, is that an idea cannot exist without someone first thinking of it, "coming up with" it, writing it down, or popularising it, unlike possibilities which exist regardless and may never be thought of.
  • Creativity: Random or deterministic? Invention or discovery?
    "Discovery" implies that every idea already exists, just waiting to be found. Whereas "invention" implies that an idea did not previously exist. I'm averse to the idea that all ideas already exist.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    If, however, we simply accept that for certain classes of belief, in certain contexts of use, "I believe it's raining" is simply the same as "It's raining" and the same as "It's true that it's raining", then the paradox is solved Macintosh is saying "I believe it's raining, I believe it isn't raining" which is a contradiction, McGillicuddy is saying "Macintosh believes it's raining, I don't believe it's raining" which is not a contradiction". Wittgenstein's objection to this solution I've covered above with Luke, is only a problem if one mixes one of the many other senses in which "I believe" could be used, many of which would also make sense in the present tenseIsaac

    Wittgenstein agrees that this contradiction is the source of the paradox; he just finds this explanation to be not comprehensive enough. The point I've been trying to get across to you - Wittgenstein's point - is that, in the context of use you describe above, the pair of statements "I believe it's raining" and "It's raining" both have the same meaning. But why doesn't the same paradox arise for the same pair of statements in the same context in the past tense? In the past tense, the same pair of statements do not have the same meaning (as each other).
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    The statement “I believe it’s going to rain” has a meaning like, that is to say a use like, “It’s going to rain”, but the meaning of “I believed then that it was going to rain”, is not like that of “It did rain then”. (PI, p.190)Isaac
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Okay, but your futuristic examples are not what Wittgenstein meant by his example. I'm trying to explain what he meant with his example.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    You responded prior to my edit. I meant that they are both used to mean the same thing, usually.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    It's not about idealism. recognising that the access we have to the real world is indirect does not entail idealism.Isaac

    Okay then, I'm not interested in a debate over direct/indirect realism.

    All I'm saying here is that if you're trying to make sense of Moore's paradox, it limits your options to simply assume that the proper object of an utterance is the real world and the truth judgement of that utterance is the state of the world. You may well have ideological commitments by which you'd like to assume that from the outset, and that's fine. I'm only saying that my understanding of the paradox doesn't assume those things and so we're not going to get any further if yours does.Isaac

    Couldn't exactly the same thing be said regarding your assumption of indirect realism? I just don't see the need for direct/indirect realism to be introduced into this discussion. Why are you trying to force it?

    That seems the same to me. "I believe it's raining" can be a description of one's state of mind (as I gave the example of someone reading off a super-advanced fMRI scan of their own brain), it just rarely is, but nothing is preventing it from being so. As such, it is this meaning which is implied when the sentence is in the past tense. The other meaning ("It's raining") is expressed in the past tense as "I believe it was raining". I don't really see what insight Wittgenstein is pointing at here.Isaac

    It seems you're still not getting it.

    The following two (present tense) statements have the same meaning/use:

    (1) "I believe it's going to rain"; and
    (2) "It's going to rain"

    Both (1) and (2) have the same meaning/use.

    The following two (past tense) statements have a different meaning/use:

    (3) "I believed then that it was going to rain"; and
    (4) "It did rain then"

    Both (3) and (4) do not have the same meaning/use.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    That just seems to beg the question. If we're going to assume the object of propositions from the outset, then we're only going to get limited range of possible solutions to the paradox.Isaac

    Beg which question? I'm just trying to make sense of Moore's paradox by way of McGinn's article. I tried to answer the question you raised about her article. I'm not interested in a debate over realism/idealism. Anyway, I suppose the same could be said about assuming the "subject" of propositions from the outset.

    The statement “I believe it’s going to rain” has a meaning like, that is to say a use like, “It’s going to rain”, but the meaning of “I believed then that it was going to rain”, is not like that of “It did rain then”. (PI, p.190)
    — Isaac

    Believe has a different past tense use to it's present tense use. I don't understand what might be so problematic about this, lots of words have different uses in different contexts.
    Isaac

    Wittgenstein's point is that the meanings of the present-tense statements "I believe it's going to rain" and "It's going to rain" are equivalent, but the meanings of the past-tense statements "I believed then that it was going to rain" and "It did rain then" are not equivalent. It's not simply that the meaning of each statement changes due to tense, but that the meaning of the two statements is not equivalent in the past-tense, as it is in the present-tense.

    Ealier you stated: "Ramsey's solution is simple, it's because 'I believe that P', 'P is true' and 'P' all amount to the same thing in ordinary use, just asserting P." Wittgenstein's example intends to demonstrate that these different statements do not "all amount to the same thing" or have the same meaning in the past tense. This is "problematic" only insofar as Ramsey's solution fails to account for it.

    If assertions are 'about' the world, then how does the world become the subject? When I form the words constituting the assertion, how does the world tell me which words to choose without first being inferred by my beliefs about it?Isaac

    How do you get from 'making assertions about the world' to 'the world tells me which words to choose'? I can't make any sense of this.

    I think this is just a lack of clarity about what 'psychological' refers to here.Isaac

    I meant it in the philosophical sense of psychologism. In this case, it is the view Wittgenstein is attempting to counter: the assumption that 'I believe...' refers to a description or reading of one's own inner/mental state.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    The photograph thing is clever. I had matter-of-factly observed that we can't deduce p from someone's asserting p -- never occurred to me to imagine deducing p from my believing that p.

    But this is another point of divergence between the first- and not-first-person cases: we regularly infer p from the fact, which we (let's say) infer from what they say, that someone trustworthy, either in general or just in the matter at hand, believes that p. It is plausibly our principal way of gathering knowledge. This sort of inference is clearly reasonable even if we grant the point at the top, that there's no logical but only probable implication to be had here.
    Srap Tasmaner

    It's an interesting observation. As I understand it, Wittgenstein's aim is to undermine the assumption that 'I believe...' is a description of a mental state, in order to demonstrate that 'I believe that p' has a meaning/use which is equivalent to 'p'. That is, he sees this as typically how 'I believe...' is used, without reference to anything psychological. Wittgenstein's resolution to the paradox - why it seems paradoxical - is because it practically and actually is a contradiction. 'I believe that p' effectively means (has the same use as) 'p' (in the first person present indicative use only). The 'photograph thing' is one of the arguments he uses to break the psychological assumption.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    But it's not the belief itself which is "a description of one's mental state" in that case; it's the doubt about the belief.
    — Luke

    I've never claimed otherwise
    creativesoul

    You did make this claim, in your now deleted post:

    "I believe" can be both, a description of one's mental state, and an assurance of subsequent sincerity about something completely different than one's own mental state.creativesoul

    You state above: ""I believe" can be [...] a description of one's mental state". This is what I have been questioning.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    One's doubt about a belief is doubting the truth thereof.creativesoul

    But it's not the belief itself which is "a description of one's mental state" in that case; it's the doubt about the belief.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    With regard to the "description of one's mental state" that you mentioned earlier, it sounds like this description concerns the level of certainty/doubt that one has about a belief rather than the belief itself. This doesn't appear to support your claim that ""I believe" can be both, a description of one's mental state, and an assurance of subsequent sincerity about something completely different than one's own mental state." You're not saying that "I believe" is a description of one's mental state; you're saying that the certainty/doubt associated with a belief is a description of one's mental state.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    "I believe, but I'm not certain" is about one's own mental state nevertheless, in these situations, to be clear.creativesoul

    I don't follow how the above statement is about one's own mental state but "I believe that some philosophical positions are better than others" is not.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Do you see it differently?creativesoul

    Could you say more about how either statement is a description of one's mental state?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    "I believe" can be both, a description of one's mental state, and an assurance of subsequent sincerity about something completely different than one's own mental state.

    "I believe that some philosophical positions are better than others" is of the latter variety. "I believe that that's correct, but I'm uncertain" is of the former.
    creativesoul

    Why is one of these a description of one's mental state but the other is not?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    someone who asserts ‘It is raining’ does not thereby assert that he believes that it is raining, but his asserting it does indeed imply that he believes it.
    — Marie McGinn

    Is it anywhere explained why? I've read the article, but not with any great depth. I can't find an explanation for this assertion. It seems on the face of it rather an odd thing to say. If the thing that someone asserts (the matter the sentence is about) can be about something which is outside of their mind, then why does saying it imply they believe it?
    Isaac

    I would guess that 'It is raining' is about the weather, whereas 'I believe it is raining' is about one's belief. The belief may be implied by the former statement, but it is not asserted. Perhaps your views are different to Moore's.

    The statement “I believe it’s going to rain” has a meaning like, that is to say a use like, “It’s going to rain”, but the meaning of “I believed then that it was going to rain”, is not like that of “It did rain then”. (PI, p.190)

    If 'P' and 'I believe that P' "amount to" the same assertion, then their meanings should not change with tense.
    — Luke

    I don't think this is the case because beliefs change,
    Isaac

    This misses the point. In the present tense, 'P' and 'I believe that P' have the same meaning, as Ramsey contends. However, Wittgenstein's example demonstrates that these two statements each have a different meaning in the past tense. Since 'P' and 'I believe that P' do not have the same meaning in the past tense, then Ramsey is incorrect to make the unqualified assertion that they both have the same meaning/use.

    "It did then rain" is a current belief (about the historical fact).Isaac

    I consider this a unique view of the matter. This would imply that all assertions are about beliefs rather than, e.g., about the world.

    Surely there are at least some cases in which we know for certain whether it did in fact rain, like the time I got drenched walking home without an umbrella.

    But this 'psychological' issue is present as an assumption in all solutions so I don't see it as a blocking point to Ramsey's. This is pretty much what Wittgenstein says later, as you quote.

    Wittgenstein believes [...] the central mistake of Moore’s approach [is] it treats ‘I believe …’ as a description of my own mental state [...] His aim is to show that this is not how the expression ‘I believe’ is used.
    — Luke

    ...ie, we can't have a belief about our mental states.
    Isaac

    I don't follow your logic here. If Wittgenstein's aim is to show that 'I believe...' is not a description of my own mental state, or that this is not how the expression 'I believe...' is used, then how is Wittgenstein making it a psychological issue? He is trying to avoid viewing it as a psychological issue. This is what Wittgenstein finds problematic about Moore's solution, according to McGinn.

    Consider, in this light though "I believed..." which is used exactly that way - a description of one's mental state. So either way we have the meaning changing with the tense. We don't seem to be able to escape that.Isaac

    As the article states: "The paradox concerns the first-person present indicative use of the verb ‘to believe’". It is not paradoxical in the third-person use, or in the first-person use in past or future tenses. It is distinctively paradoxical only in the first-person present indicative use of the verb.

    Wittgenstein's solution is to break the assumption (shared by Moore) that 'I believe...' is a description of one's own mental state. To quote from the article again:

    If the words ‘I believe’ describe my internal, representational state, then, Wittgenstein suggests, it ought to make sense for me to ask whether my belief is a reliable guide to what the facts are. If I read off facts about the world from a photograph, I must also be in a position to say that the photograph is a good one, that it is a trustworthy representation of what is the case. And similarly, it ought to make sense to say: ‘ “I believe it’s raining and my belief is reliable, so I have confidence in it” ’ (PI, p. 190). ‘In that case,’ he remarks, ‘my belief would be a kind of sense impression’ (PI, p. 190). But this is not how the words ‘I believe’ are actually used, for ‘[o]ne can mistrust one’s own senses, but not one’s own belief ’ (PI, p. 190). Saying ‘I believe that p’ is equivalent to asserting that p is the case, and is not a means of telling that p is the case, which I might trust or mistrust. This is shown, Wittgenstein suggests, in the fact that if ‘there were a verb meaning ‘to believe falsely’, it would not have any significant first person present indicative’ (PI, p. 190). — Marie McGinn
  • Kamala Harris
    What’s a good pick? That you like her or that she will help to defeat Trump?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Unfortunately we can only gather very little of Moore's meaning from that one letter which is why I quoted from PI.Isaac

    Marie Mcginn's article (PDF) is worth a read. She offers this account of Moore's paradox and his solution:

    The paradox concerns the first-person present indicative use of the verb ‘to believe’. Moore observes that although it may, for example, be true that it is raining and I do not believe that it is raining, it is absurd for me to say ‘It is raining but I do not believe that it is’. For Moore, the paradox arises insofar as there may be truths about me which I cannot, without absurdity, assert. How is this to be explained? Moore’s own suggestion for how to resolve the paradox is to recognize that we need to distinguish between what someone asserts and what he implies in asserting it. Thus, someone who asserts ‘It is raining’ does not thereby assert that he believes that it is raining, but his asserting it does indeed imply that he believes it. It is, according to Moore, because someone who asserts that it is raining implies that he believes that it is, that it is absurd for him to go on and assert that he does not believe it. — Marie McGinn

    This is pretty much what many people here, including myself, have suggested: that it is simply absurd for a speaker both to assert P and to assert he does not believe it.

    Ramsey's solution is simple, it's because 'I believe that P', 'P is true' and 'P' all amount to the same thing in ordinary use, just asserting P.Isaac

    I am not familiar with Ramsey's solution, but - assuming your account is correct - this is what sparks Wittgenstein's interest: 'P' (or 'P is true') and 'I believe that P' are not equivalent in all contexts. Moore's paradox reveals something interesting about the grammar of the word 'believe'. If these were equivalent, then you would expect that tense would not alter their equivalence. However, as you have already quoted (from Wittgenstein):

    The statement “I believe it’s going to rain” has a meaning like, that is to say a use like, “It’s going to rain”, but the meaning of “I believed then that it was going to rain”, is not like that of “It did rain then”. (PI, p.190)

    If 'P' and 'I believe that P' "amount to" the same assertion, then their meanings should not change with tense.

    I find McGinn's presentation of Wittgenstein's solution to be somewhat nuanced, but at its base is the familiar motif of his later philosophy:

    Wittgenstein believes [...] the central mistake of Moore’s approach [is] it treats ‘I believe …’ as a description of my own mental state [...] His aim is to show that this is not how the expression ‘I believe’ is used.

    What I consider to be the important points of (McGinn's interpretation of) Wittgenstein's solution:

    if we are inclined to hold that ‘I believe’ ascribes a mental state—the same state whether it is used in the first-person present indicative, in the past tense, or in the context ‘Suppose …’, or in the third-person—then we want to see ‘a different development of the verb’, one on which ‘I believe …’ is never equivalent to the assertion ‘It is the case that …’. [...]

    On the ‘different development of the verb’, I am to be understood as ascribing a certain disposition to myself, the disposition which the state of belief is held to consist in. On this view, ‘I believe …’ is not equivalent to the assertion ‘It is the case that …’, although conclusions about my state of mind may be drawn on the basis of both. The expression ‘I believe that p’ is equivalent to the assertion that I am in a certain dispositional state. But now the question arises: ‘how do I myself recognize my own disposition?’ Surely, ‘it will have been necessary for me to take notice of myself as others do, to listen to myself talking, to be able to draw conclusions from what I say!’ (PI, p. 192). The absurdity of this suggestion—expressed through the presence of an exclamation mark—shows, Wittgenstein believes, that the words ‘I believe’ are not used to ascribe a disposition to myself. [...]

    The idea that in using the words ‘I believe …’ I ascribe a disposition to myself misrepresents the way we are taught to operate with these words. It misrepresents what is an act of making or expressing a judgement about the world as a description of the state of a particular person. Wittgenstein acknowledges that there are circumstances in which it does make sense to say “Judging from what I say, this is what I believe”. These are circumstances in which I stand back from my normal state of engagement and try to take an objective view of myself: I try to see myself as others see me. In these circumstances, saying ‘I believe …’ is no longer equivalent to asserting ‘It is the case that …’ and, Wittgenstein observes, it would be possible for me to say “It seems to me that my ego believes this, but it isn’t true” (PI, p. 192). In these circumstances, it is as if two people—the one on whom I reflect and the one doing the reflecting—speak through my mouth. However, this is not the normal use of ‘I believe …’, and it is a use, Wittgenstein wants to insists, which presupposes the normal use.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    But that just perpetuates the claim with which Wittgenstein expressly disagrees: that the paradox is "an absurdity for psychological reasons".
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    Moore himself is reported to have said the sentence is "an absurdity for psychological reasons" - According to Wittgenstein's report of the lecture.

    Despite the herculean efforts of most posters here to avoid any psychological talk and focus on the 'say-ability' of the sentence, this was never the object of the paradox. The object of the paradox was entirely psychological - according to Moore.
    Isaac

    You appear to suggest that Moore, Wittgenstein and Ramsey were in agreement on this. However, according to Marie McGinn, Wittgenstein did not agree with Moore about this:

    Wittgenstein expresses his dissatisfaction with Moore’s resolution of the paradox
    in the letter he wrote immediately after the meeting of the Moral Sciences Club:
    ‘To call this, as I think you did, “an absurdity for psychological reasons” seems to me
    wrong, or highly misleading. (If I ask someone “Is there a fire in the next room?”
    and he answers “I believe there is” I can’t say: “Don’t be irrelevant. I asked you
    about the fire, not about your state of mind!”)’ (Wittgenstein, 1995: 315–16)
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    I can easily say "I say P but I don't believe P"; I'm just telling you I'm lying when I say P.Pfhorrest

    I don’t think this is right (even though I conceded to @Michael earlier that it was). I find the sentence to be absurd whether the speaker is lying or not. Also, it’s not much of a lie.

    It is absurd to assert ‘P but I don’t believe P’ whether honestly or not. You, @Pfhorrest, previously made the distinction roughly that ‘P’ is a strong form of assertion and ‘I believe P’ (or ‘I don’t believe P’) is a weak(er) form of assertion. The absurdity of honestly expressing ‘P but I don’t believe P’ is clear enough. But even if a speaker were lying about one or the other, there seems to be no reasonable circumstance in which someone would express both simultaneously. And it’s a terrible lie! Why would someone lie using that absurd form of expression? Why would one lie about P and also claim not to believe their own lie? Why would one honestly assert P and also lie about disbelieving it?

    Additionally, I think someone previously raised the example where it would make sense to assert the paradoxical statement, such as ‘I’ve won lotto; I can’t believe it’. This is not true disbelief; only an expression of great surprise.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    In this discussion, all we've done is digressed, from the meaning of "number" to the meaning of "value", to the meaning of "meaning".Metaphysician Undercover

    That's probably because you tried to argue that the word "value" has only one meaning, then I provided several other different dictionary definitions, and then you tried to change the subject.

    I'm done with your twisting of the discussion. You're wrong.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    When I talk about this animal here, my cat, "animal" has a completely different meaning from when I talk about that animal over there, my dog. The fact that all the things called "animal" can be classed together in on group, as animals, does not mean that whenever someone refers to one of those animals, "animal" has the same meaning. I am talking about this animal here now, my cat, do you see how the meaning of "animal" is completely different from when I am talking about that animal over there, my dog.Metaphysician Undercover

    These are the same meaning of the word "animal", with a definition such as: "a living organism that feeds on organic matter, typically having specialized sense organs and nervous system and able to respond rapidly to stimuli."

    I suggested, that a "value" is related to a scale, But this does not mean that when I talk about the value of a dollar, or the value of zero degrees Celsius, "value" has the same meaning. That would be ridiculous. The meaning is determined by the scale being referred to, just like the meaning of "animal" in my example, is determined by the creature being referred to.Metaphysician Undercover

    It's not the same. Your example of "animal" uses the same definition and has the same meaning whether it's a cat or a dog. The Google definitions I provided for "value" are not the same and do not all have the same meaning.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    I said there are all different types of values.Metaphysician Undercover

    This implies the same meaning of the word "value" across all "types of values".

    What basis is there for claiming that there is a meaning for "value" which refers to something completely independent from all other types of valueMetaphysician Undercover

    The dictionary for one thing. My knowledge of different meanings/uses of the word "value" for another.

    Google offers these different meanings of the word "value":

    1.
    the regard that something is held to deserve; the importance, worth, or usefulness of something.
    "your support is of great value"

    the material or monetary worth of something.
    "prints seldom rise in value"

    face value
    the worth of something compared to the price paid or asked for it.
    "at £12.50 the book is good value"

    2.
    principles or standards of behaviour; one's judgement of what is important in life.
    "they internalize their parents' rules and values"

    3.
    the numerical amount denoted by an algebraic term; a magnitude, quantity, or number.
    "the mean value of x"

    4.
    Music
    the relative duration of the sound signified by a note.

    5.
    Linguistics
    the meaning of a word or other linguistic unit.

    the quality or tone of a spoken sound; the sound represented by a letter.

    6.
    the relative degree of lightness or darkness of a particular colour.

    These aren't different "types of values"; they are different meanings of the word "value". Note that not all of these are synonymous with "the desirability of a thing".
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    What basis is there for assuming that the word "value" can have only one meaning?
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Therefore any value is a type of value and the type is determined by the scale. There is no such thing as a value which is independent from a scale of evaluation, and the scale determines the type of value.Metaphysician Undercover

    It's as though I am talking about the bank of a river and you keep telling me that I must be talking about a financial institution.

    So unless you are talking about "value" in the most general sense,Metaphysician Undercover

    What is ""value" in the most general sense"? A word can have more than one meaning. What basis is there for assuming that the word "value" can have only one meaning? I mean, just look in the dictionary.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Clearly our disagreement is not in the meaning of "objects", but in the meaning of "value". You want to disassociate quantitative value from all other sorts of value, claiming that mathematical values are something completely distinct and unrelated to any other type of value. But values do not exist in that way, They exist in hierarchical structures, one type of value receiving its worth from another, like a family tree, until the whole structure is grounded in a material desire or want. Aristotle explained this in his Nichomachean Ethics, one end is for the sake of another end, which is for the sake of another, until there is a grounding. Unless you recognize that values are tied together in this way and it is unrealistic, and a misunderstanding, to separate one type of value (quantitative value) from all others, we will always disagree.Metaphysician Undercover

    For god sake, man. There is a meaning of the word "value" which is a synonym for "number". I'm not talking about a type of value, as in the values that people hold or in what people value. It's just another word for a number, or the number represented by an algebraic term. That's it. It has absolutely nothing to do with any other meaning of "value". You can't accept that? Fine. I don't care.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    This is what I object to. In no way can a value be an object. — Metaphysician Undercover

    That was four days ago. And, it's what I've been arguing for weeks. Did it take you this long to figure out that I really. mean what I say?
    Metaphysician Undercover

    What does any of that have to do with numbers?

    I assume you saw the phrase "mathematical object" in the Wikipedia article on value and now you want to argue over the meaning of "objects". No, thanks. Look it up: "A mathematical object is an abstract concept arising in mathematics."
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    There is a specific type of value, a quantitative value, which people have assigned the word "number" to. You have been working hard to disassociate "quantitative value" from all other forms of valueMetaphysician Undercover

    They are different meanings of the word "value", as demonstrated by the Wikipedia article I posted. If you can't accept this, then I wish you well.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    ...there is no need to posit "a number" as existing between the symbol "1", and what the symbol refers to...

    The value we give to the group "4", is an abstract feature, but it's a value
    Metaphysician Undercover

    A value is a number. Do you acknowledge that?

    Given your two claims above, it looks like you now accept that the “abstract feature” of a value/number exists between the symbol and what the symbol refers to. Otherwise you must think that a value/number is a symbol, or that an object is an “abstract feature”.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Hold on here, you're jumping ahead of yourself. An object is one, so you cannot predicate any number other than one of an object. If you have a group or set of objects you can count them, assign a quantity or number to that group or set, but take notice that number, or quantity is actually predicated of the group or set, not of the objects themselves.Metaphysician Undercover

    First you claim that there is no intermediary between symbols and objects, but now you claim that there are both numbers and sets between them? Make up your mind.


    Clearly a numeral is an object, as a symbol. But I do not see how a number can be an object. Number, or quantity is something predicated of a group or set of objects, so how can a number itself be an object?Metaphysician Undercover

    Yes, I expressed this poorly. I simply meant that numbers can also be predicated of numerals and numbers themselves.

    The expression isn't what has the value, it's what the expression refers to that has the value.Metaphysician Undercover

    Right, the expression [e.g. “2+2”] is a set of symbols. I was drawing a parallel between this and numerals.

    The numeral "4" does not have the value, of 4, Whatever it is that we refer to with "4", in application, is what is judged to have that value. So "4" is used to refer to that group of objects which is judged to have the value of 4.Metaphysician Undercover

    Exactly my point. So you need to review your claim that “ there is no need to posit "a number" as existing between the symbol "1", and what the symbol refers to”. “4” refers to neither the symbol nor the objects themselves, but instead to an abstract feature/grouping of those objects: a number.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    I have no problem with saying that a numeral represents a value. That is how we establish equality, by giving different things the same value.Metaphysician Undercover

    Then you must concede that there exists an intermediary between a symbol (numeral) and an object: a value. A value is a number.

    Numerals represent numbers which are predicated of objects. But a numeral or a number can also be an object. We can speak of three numerals or four numbers, for example.

    "2+2" and "3+1" are just symbols which cannot be said to have any particular value, or refer to any particular value.Metaphysician Undercover

    Both expressions have a value of 4. A child could tell you that.

    No such "number" is indicated. "2+2=3+1" is just an expression of symbolsMetaphysician Undercover

    Forget those expressions, then. You have accepted that the symbols "4" and "IV" both represent a value of four, and a value is neither an object nor a symbol; it is a number. A number is an abstract concept.

    To imagine that there is an object called "a number" referred to by "2", or "3", or another type of mathematical object referred to by "2+2", or "3+1" is just an imaginary fictionMetaphysician Undercover

    You still need to explain how you can count objects without first being able to count numbers.
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    The point is that there is no need to posit "a number" as existing between the symbol "1", and what the symbol refers to in a particular application of mathematics.Metaphysician Undercover

    Different numerals can represent the same number (or value), such as "4" and "IV". Also, different expressions can represent the same number (or value), such as "2x2" and "1+3". This indicates "a number as existing between the symbol(s)...and what the symbol(s) refer to".

    ...counting numbers is nonsense...Metaphysician Undercover

    I don't see how you can count (anything) unless you can count numbers.
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    No. My belief is that it is not raining. It isn't raining. Therefore my belief is true.Michael

    Fair enough, perhaps you have found a way out of the paradox by lying about P. What if you don't lie about it?
  • Infinite casual chains and the beginning of time?
    Does “1” refer to an object called “a number”?
    — Luke

    No, of course not.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    So "1" is not a number? Or, is it specifically that "1" is not an object called "a number"? Who is claiming that "1" is an object?
  • Moore's Puzzle About Belief
    It's true regarding your belief. It's false regarding the weather. As a conjunction it's false.Michael

    Doesn't that make your belief false, then?