Comments

  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    I am assuming that when he says "this here" while pointing to the object in front of him he means the object in front of him is here.Fooloso4

    I don't think that you should make that assumption, but thanks for finally admitting that you are making it. You formerly said: "I don't know why you would assume that I have assumed any such thing."

    I am not assuming a specific meaning.Fooloso4

    But you just said that you were. Again.

    That is not a criticism, it is a statement of fact. You were not making a claim about the object, that is, the map. You were not saying that the map is here. If you were pointing to the map in front of you and saying "this is here" then your example would be the same as Wittgenstein's, and would be just as senseless.Fooloso4

    Then why did you say that my example "replaces the one Wittgenstein rejects"? It does not replace Wittgenstein's example. It is the same sentence and pointing, only with added context (i.e. special circumstances).

    I have no assumed meaning of the sentence.Fooloso4

    See the quote at top of this post.

    Again, following Wittgenstein, in the circumstances described it makes not sense to say "this is here". That is not because I assume the sentence has a particular meaning, but because in this situation it makes no sense.Fooloso4

    Why does it make no sense in Wittgenstein's example? You formerly said: "It is not a matter of adding context to the example in order to make sense of it."

    It is the same in that you are both pointing, but you are pointing to a location on a map and he is pointing to an object, say, the map. In your example 'this' means the location, in Wittgenstein's this means the object in from of him.Fooloso4

    Right, the meaning of "this" (or "this is here") is different in each example, but the pointing is not different. That's why pointing at the object does not make it a circumstance.

    But thanks for once again including the pointing. You formerly said: "He is not asking us to consider circumstances in which one points while saying it."

    It is frustrating when you act as though your position has remained unchanged all along. It would be nice if you could acknowledge the changes to your views.

    I am not going to try to convince you otherwise, but consider this: if I were to ask in what circumstances he said "this is here" the answer would be, while pointing to an object in front of him.Fooloso4

    What does 'This is here' mean in these "circumstances"?

    What distinction are you making between doesn't make sense and lacks sense?Fooloso4

    In Wittgenstein's example, "This is here" does not yet have a sense. It's not that it doesn't make sense, but that its sense has yet to be determined. It is not meaningless; it could mean a number of things, but there is currently insufficient information to decide its meaning.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    If someone points to an object and says "this is here" I assume he means the object he is pointing to is here, but he might be pointing to something else. He might mean a scratch on the object, for example. That does not mean I have a specific meaning in mind.Fooloso4

    Yes, it does. The specific meaning you have assumed, as you yourself have just clearly stated, is that "the object he is pointing to is here".

    it means that I assume he is pointing to the object and not something about the object.Fooloso4

    Right?

    I did not criticize your example. What I said is:Fooloso4

    The criticism I was referring to was this of yours: "Although someone is still pointing, he is not making a claim about the object, the map, being here."

    This indicated to me that you thought that my map example had failed to provide a suitable meaning for 'This is here', because it did not comport with your assumed meaning of 'This is here'.

    The reason it does not mean the map is here is because you are pointing to a location on the map not the map.Fooloso4

    The pointing is the same in either case. It is the meaning of 'This is here' that is different.

    If you mean as per what Wittgenstein says should be considered - circumstances where this sentence is actually used then I agree. But his example was of circumstances where it does not make sense - pointing to something in front of him and saying "this is here".Fooloso4

    I don't believe that his example at 117 contains any circumstances. Therefore, I don't think that it doesn't make sense. Instead, I think that 'This is here' in his example lacks sense or has an indeterminate meaning. It requires some suitable circumstances to give it that meaning. But maybe we mean something similar by this.
  • Is Kripke's theory of reference consistent with Wittgenstein's?
    Perhaps. Do these determine your name?Banno

    Perhaps not, but the name refers to me as a person.

    Having just finished a rushed reading of the text, I'd like to note a couple of things. Again, I welcome any corrections, and apologies in advance for the naivety of my questions.

    Firstly, it seems that while my name refers to me as a person in all possible worlds, what counts as "me as a person" can really be anything at all. All known facts about me could be false, all descriptions of me could possibly be otherwise, yet my name would still refer...to me?

    Secondly, as I understand it, a proper name refers to the same person in all possible words. But what does its being necessary mean? Especially since true descriptions of 'me as a person' appear to be unnecessary to the reference.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    You may have missed the late edit of my last post, but let's go back to my map example. You stated:

    Your own example replaces the one Wittgenstein rejects. Although someone is still pointing, he is not making a claim about the object, the map, being here.Fooloso4

    It is clear from this that you have a specific meaning of 'This is here' in mind (i.e. "the object...being here"). Furthermore, you have criticised my example because it fails to have the meaning you have presupposed. This is your presupposition about the meaning of 'This is here'.

    In your example "this is here" does not mean the map is here.Fooloso4

    That's right, because I haven't made your presupposition about the meaning of 'this is here'.

    I did not think this was in dispute since you said "this" refers to a location on the map.Fooloso4

    That's right, but I have provided a scenario in which I point to an object (map) and say 'This is here', precisely as per Wittgenstein's example. Wittgenstein has not stipulated that "this" must or must not refer in a particular way to the object at which I am pointing. That is, Wittgenstein has not stipulated the meaning of 'This is here'. Yet, you have presupposed a meaning, and criticised my map example for failing to meet it.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    The circumstance is him pointing to the object in front of him and saying this is here.Fooloso4

    That's not a circumstance. Wittgenstein asks us to consider in what circumstances the sentence (and pointing) are actually used.

    You are assuming that "this is here" has a specific meaning
    — Luke

    I don't know why you would assume that I have assumed any such thing. Everything I have said runs counter to the idea that it has a specific meaning.
    Fooloso4

    From what you have said:
    Although someone is still pointing, he is not making a claim about the object, the map, being here.Fooloso4
    The person pointing might think it makes sense to say that the object he is pointing to is here, but Wittgenstein does not.Fooloso4
    What is the sentence: "This is here" supposed to be doing? It cannot be used to inform us that the object is here.Fooloso4

    I have not seen you suggest that it could have any other meaning. And you criticised my map example because it fails to have this meaning.

    Right. And that is why I said:

    In your example you are pointing at a map but you are pointing to a location on the map
    Fooloso4

    Yes, that is the context I have provided.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    The statement fails to have meaning unless it's in the proper context. The logic behind the correct use of this phrase will not work in just any situation or context.Sam26

    Agreed, which is why I distinguished between suitable and unsuitable contexts/situations.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Yes, that is what Wittgenstein says. Whatever those circumstances are in which it makes sense to say "this is here" might be, his example is not one of those cases.Fooloso4

    His example does not contain any circumstances, so there is insufficient information to determine this.

    When he points to the object and says "This is here" I see no reason to conclude he is not talking about the object he is pointing to.Fooloso4

    But you are doing more than that. You are assuming that "this is here" has a specific meaning; of the object "being here" or that 'this object is in front of me' or something similar. That is, you are assuming that the meaning of 'This is here' is like "an aura the [sentence] brings along with it and retains in every
    kind of use."

    In my map example, I am also talking about the object I am pointing to, but the meaning of 'This is here' in that scenario is not 'this object is in front of me', and it need not be.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    You are doing what Wittgenstein suggests we do, consider circumstances where it does make sense to say "This is here".Fooloso4

    That's right.

    In Wittgenstein's example "this" would refer to the object, the map.Fooloso4

    In both examples, the person points at an object. In my example, the object is a map.

    The person pointing might think it makes sense to say that the object he is pointing to is here, but Wittgenstein does not. He is asking us to compare this case with others in which one actually says this, cases in which it does make sense to say "This is here".Fooloso4

    You are presupposing a meaning of 'This is here' which is not part of Wittgenstein's example. You have determined in advance that 'This is here' must have the meaning of 'this object is at this location in front of me' (or similar). However in Wittgenstein's example no such meaning has yet been determined because he has not provided the circumstances which would give the sentence its particular meaning. The meaning depends on how those words are used. You seem to assume that 'This is here' makes sense to you. But you should ask yourself in what special circumstances this sentence is actually used. There it does make sense.

    Although someone is still pointing, he is not making a claim about the object, the map, being here.Fooloso4

    The person in Wittgenstein's example is not necessarily making a claim about the object "being here", either. No such determination has been made about the meaning of 'This is here' at 117.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    It does not make sense to point to something in front of you and say "This is here".Fooloso4

    You don't think that my example of pointing at a map and saying "This is here" makes sense?

    He then asks us to consider circumstances where it would make sense to say "This is here". He is not asking us to consider circumstances in which one points while saying it.Fooloso4

    Are we reading the same book? Of course he asks us to consider pointing at the object while saying it:

    If, for example, someone says that the sentence “This is here” (saying which he points to an object in front of him) makes sense to him, — PI 117

    See the parenthetical remark.

    I don't think so. It is not a matter of adding circumstances to the example but of replacing the example with some situation in which it does make sense to say "This is here".Fooloso4

    What does "replacing the example" mean? The example is just someone saying "This is here" while pointing to an object in front of him. You want to replace this?
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    If we are to think of circumstances in which the sentence "This is here" makes sense we do not have to include the act of pointing at an object that is in front of you.Fooloso4

    I don't understand why you want to exclude the pointing when it is part of the example described at §117.

    In other words, we do not have to start with the circumstances described in the example and add something in order to have it make sense.Fooloso4

    Don't we need to "add" the "special circumstances" in which "this sentence is actually used", given that "there" is where "it does make sense"?
  • Is Kripke's theory of reference consistent with Wittgenstein's?
    "That particular person" is Luke. No particular, and no set of, attributes determine that the person is Luke.Banno

    But surely there are a set of attributes (or descriptions?) that determine me as a person? Height, weight, hair colour, eye colour, age, etc. That is, there is a person that goes with the name, just as there is H2O that goes with the word "water". Are we supposed to ignore the (actual world) facts about a particular person for Kripke's purposes?

    The identification ins in the specification of the possible world. Consider a possible world in which Luke is female. Consider a possible world in which Luke is Jewish. What guarantees that we are talking about Luke? The very specification that swts up the possible world.Banno

    But there are a set of facts about Luke in the actual world, and then counterfactuals about Luke in (other) possible worlds, I thought?
  • Is Kripke's theory of reference consistent with Wittgenstein's?
    I am not very well versed in Naming and Necessity, rigid designators, or modal logic, so I welcome any corrections. As I understand it, just as the natural kind 'water' is identified with its constitutive properties 'H2O' in all possible worlds, so too a proper name (of a particular person) is identified with that particular person in all possible worlds. Since descriptions of that person are not necessary in all possible worlds, then proper names are not synonymous with descriptions of that person.

    But what exactly is meant by "that particular person"? Which attributes of a person are necessary and which are not? For example, can I be black, or a woman, or Jewish, or missing limbs, etc. in other possible worlds? Or do I need to be exactly the same person that I am (now?) in the actual world? What does "exactly the same" mean here? Does being male in this world count as a description or as a "constitutive property" of me (i.e. of "that particular person")? Where is the distinction drawn between a description and a constitutive property?

    I don't really see the point of the quasi-scientific finding that proper names are rigid designators or its associated language-game(s). Wittgenstein's view in the Philosophical Investigations seems very far removed from Kripke's:

    Naming is not yet a move in a language-game — any more than putting a piece in its place on the board is a move in chess. One may say: with the mere naming of a thing, nothing has yet been done. Nor has it a name except in a game. — PI 49
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    The particular circumstances in which the sentence is actually used is meant to compare with the example. It is in those circumstances that the sentence makes sense. The example illustrates the point that the meaning is not something that carries "in every kind of use". 'There', as in "There it does make sense." does not mean here, that is, in the example, but those circumstances in which the sentence is actually used.Fooloso4

    I'm not exactly sure what you mean by "compare with the example" but it looks as though we are in agreement here. However, I don't know how to square this with your previous post () where you stated that pointing at the object should not be included, and that it was not a matter of adding context to the example in order to make sense of it.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    The circumstances in which the sentence is used and makes sense is not one in which one points to an object in front of him while saying it. It is not a matter of adding context to the example in order to make sense of it. It is rather, that there may be circumstances in which one says "this is here" and it makes sense but saying it while pointing to something in front of him is not one of those circumstances.Fooloso4

    I don't think this is right. Wittgenstein gives the example, which includes the pointing, and says that in the "special circumstances" in which the sentence is actually used: "There it does make sense."

    I find OC 348 a little unclear, which may be confusing things, but this is how I read it:

    348. Just as the words "I am here" have a meaning only in certain contexts, and not [in this context, e.g.] when I say them to someone who is sitting in front of me and sees me clearly, - and not because [the words] are superfluous, but because their meaning is not determined by this unsuitable situation, yet [the meaning of the words] stands in need of such determination [by a suitable situation].

    Hopefully I haven't made it more unclear, but I think you are mistaken to infer that Wittgenstein is saying that the meaning is not (ever) determined by the situation. I think he is referring to his own unsuitable example (of someone sitting in front of him) when he says this, and that is why he goes on to say that the meaning of the words "stands in need of such determination" (but by a different, suitable situation).

    I thought my example in the context of pointing to a map worked okay with "this is here".

    What is the sentence: "This is here" supposed to be doing? It cannot be used to inform us that the object is here.Fooloso4

    That's just it though: Wittgenstein has not provided any context/circumstances/situation for the sentence "This is here", so it needn't necessarily have the particular meaning you have attributed to it ("to inform us that the object is here"). That's just one possible meaning that occurs to you when you hear/read it.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    If "philosophical use...is no different from any instance of ordinary use", as you claim, then what does it mean to "bring words back from their metaphysical to their everyday use" - and why do you state that "Wittgenstein is trying" to do this? If all uses of language are already ordinary or everyday uses, then what is there to bring back? What is a metaphysical use, then?
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    And yet words do have a aura that is the ghost of all the uses in all the games of the ancestors.unenlightened

    I think that within a particular context (where the meaning is unambiguous), it is as though the other possible meanings of a word disappear. Obviously, one can intentionally use a word in an ambiguous manner (e.g. double entendre). However, perhaps some might suggest that there is no such thing as an unambiguous meaning.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    One example I've just thought of could be saying (to someone) "This is here" while pointing at a map, where "this" refers to a location on the map and "here" refers to your current location. It is therefore similar to unenlightened's example of two different "realms".
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    On what occasion would you point at an object and say "This is here"?
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    But he says the sentence does make sense in the circumstances in which it is actually used.Fooloso4

    Yes, but he also prompts the reader to question what are those "special circumstances". As I said in my initial post on §117, we probably could provide/imagine such circumstances, but I haven't found it easy to do so.

    If those circumstances are "special" in the sense of extraordinaryFooloso4

    No, I take "special" to mean particular, like you stated earlier.

    The sentence: "This is here" does have an everyday use. "This is here (pointing to the table) and this is here (pointing to the chair) but where are the dishes?"Fooloso4

    Maybe that works, but the sentence has been changed from "This is here" to "This is here but where is X?"
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    It seems a fucking weird thing to say, to me.unenlightened

    Yes, eloquently put. :grin:
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    I don't think he meant that one would actually say "This is here" but rather the particular object is here:Fooloso4

    I disagree. Firstly, I find no reason to question Wittgenstein's example. Secondly, I think it may be another case similar to "Here is a hand" or "I know there is a sick man lying here" (OC10), which could be metaphysical uses, as you say, and/or they could also be seemingly sensible expressions which don't make very much sense upon closer scrutiny. (ETA: unless we can find a suitable context, or "special circumstances", for them.)
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    In what circumstances does it make sense? If we are looking for the object and find it: "This (the car key) is here. Or if mapping the location of objects in the room. Or giving an inventory of the things in the room. There is nothing "special" about these circumstances. They are all quite ordinary, but they are not the same circumstances in which one claims "This is here" and means something metaphysical.Fooloso4

    I don't disagree with this, but "This is here" still sounds unnatural to me in your examples.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Exactly, it could be used in absolutely any circumstancesMetaphysician Undercover
    ..."this is here", creates something specific (special)Metaphysician Undercover

    I don't see how it could be both "used in absolutely any circumstances" (general) but also "something specific" (particular). By "special circumstances" Wittgenstein does not mean just any context. It is not made into a context or some set of "special circumstances" simply by adding that he also points at the object.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    The context is given, someone says "this is here" as he points to an object.Metaphysician Undercover

    If that were the case, then why does Wittgenstein state: "he should ask himself in what special circumstances this sentence is actually used"?
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    "This is here" - "You understand this expression, don’t you? Well then - I’m using it with the meaning you’re familiar with."

    But when would we use this expression? A context could probably be provided/imagined, but I can't think of one easily. "This is here" is an unusual expression, which is why (I think) Wittgenstein considers that its actual use would require "special circumstances".
  • Houses are Turning Into Flowers
    It is only in normal cases that the use of a word is clearly laid out in advance for us; we know, are in no doubt, what we have to say in this or that case. The more abnormal the case, the more doubtful it becomes what we are to say. And if things were quite different from what they actually are —– if there were, for instance, no characteristic expression of pain, of fear, of joy; if rule became exception, and exception rule; or if both became phenomena of roughly equal frequency —– our normal language-games would thereby lose their point. — The procedure of putting a lump of cheese on a balance and fixing the price by the turn of the scale would lose its point if it frequently happened that such lumps suddenly grew or shrank with no obvious cause. — PI 142
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    A relevant quote relating to issues around §116:

    The sense in which philosophy of logic speaks of sentences and words is no different from that in which we speak of them in ordinary life when we say, for example, “What is written here is a Chinese sentence”, or “No, that only looks like writing; it’s actually just ornamental”, and so on.
    We’re talking about the spatial and temporal phenomenon of language, not about some non-spatial, atemporal non-entity. [Only it is possible to be interested in a phenomenon in a variety of ways]. But we talk about it as we do about the pieces in chess when we are stating the rules for their moves, not describing their physical properties.
    The question “What is a word really?” is analogous to “What is a piece in chess?”
    — PI 108 (boxed section)
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    After all, Witty consistently and repeatedly stresses that what he has to say has nothing to do with discovering new facts, nothing to do with the empirical, and bears entirely on the understanding.StreetlightX

    Yes, but this is aimed more at philosophers who have been misguidedly seeking the ideal, than it is at philosophers who he encourages to look at actual language use, which he suggests should be done in detail "from close up".

    To say that everyday use has nothing to do with empirical use is not to exclude it.StreetlightX

    Well, again, this seemed to be what you were clearly indicating in your initial post, with comments such as:

    So - If not this [i.e. empirical use], then what? What is an 'everyday use' if not an empirical use of language in an anthropological setting?StreetlightX

    If your view has now changed, then okay.

    Furthermore, my reference to a dictionary was in no way meant to exclude any new uses of language, It was only to try and moderate your extreme example of the need to conduct a poll. Yes, there are always novel and creative uses - I never denied that - but the bulk of our words can still be found in a dictionary. And these are regularly being updated, including resources such as urbandictionary.com.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Are you using "anthropological use" differently from "empirical use", or are these the same?

    On the one hand you say that everyday use has "nothing to do with" the empirical use, i.e., excludes the empirical use. On the other hand, you say that everyday use includes but is more than the empirical use.

    Have you changed your position, or which is it?
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    All of which is to say, once again, that the 'everyday use' of language has nothing to do with an empirical use of language.StreetlightX
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    To try and clarify my criticism a little more:

    The 'metaphysical use of language' imagines that there is an essence/ideal of language which the actual use of language must/ought/should conform to. By contrast, the everyday use of language is any use of language which does not have this requirement. That's it.StreetlightX

    What is this everyday use, if not the anthropological use of language? Where is this imaginary language ("which does not have this requirement") ever to be used given that Streetlight has excluded its actual use by real people?

    If one excludes the actual anthropological use, then it becomes difficult to make sense of Wittgenstein's advice at §116: "one must always ask oneself: is the word ever actually used in this way in the language in which it is at home?"
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Use comes first. Rules are established by use.Fooloso4

    Agreed.

    The rules maintain that use, that is, they determine the common use, how you or I will use that word according to its established use.Fooloso4

    And also its established meaning. The rules that determine the use also determine the associated meaning, i.e. the established meaning which accompanies that use (in that way, in that context).

    The rule is the standard, but it is the use not the subsequent rules of use that determine meaning.Fooloso4

    Yes, it is the use that determines the meaning. The subsequent rules are established by, and maintain, both the use and the meaning.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    I give it plenty of credit. Nitpick all you want. I'm not going to precede every instance of "use" with the word "current". Take it as given.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Okay. Don't worry, I won't bother trying to bring back the phrase "everyday use" to its everyday use.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.


    I don't see why the anthropological reading cannot also be the subtractive reading. I consider it strange that Wittgenstein would have some specialised technical meaning for the phrase "everyday use". This everyday use could very well have the meaning of bringing words back to how they are in fact used by empirical communities of speakers, but we could more easily consult a dictionary rather than conduct a poll. That's the point about the philosopher's quest for the essences of (what turns out to be) merely the use of particular words: they cannot simply accept a dictionary definition, i.e. the everyday use, but are compelled to search for some ideal meaning. I find §116 to be closely related to §97: "if the words “language”, “experience”, “world” have a use, it must be as humble a one as that of the words “table”, “lamp”, “door”."
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    Your inference is not correct.Fooloso4

    I would appreciate if you could explain how rules can determine use but not meaning. I don't recall Wittgenstein discussing this later in the text.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    What is at issue is your claim:

    Therefore, rules or grammar determine proper and improper meaning.
    Fooloso4

    I wasn't aware this was at issue, given that it was an inference I made from your statements:

    The meaning of a word is found in its use. Rules or grammar determine proper and improper use.Fooloso4

    You initially stated that rules determine proper and improper use, not me.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    My example of following was intended to get at the distinction between following along and following a rule. There may have been no practice of following along and it is not clear whether what they are doing is part of a practice. It may have simply been what they all did on that one occasion.Fooloso4

    Perhaps I was not clear enough, but when I asked "What's the difference?" in response to your distinction between following a rule and following along, I assumed we were both speaking within the context of rule following. This is why my question was accompanied by the paraphrase of §199 that to follow a rule is a custom. I agree that there is obviously a distinction between following a rule and merely following along outside of this context.

    The practice of playing chess means playing chess. This is not the same thing as the rules of chess.Fooloso4

    Perhaps if you take "the practice" to mean the application, exercise, action or rehearsal, but not if you take "the practice" to mean the method, way, procedure or convention. Which did you intend when you stated "It is the practice that governs the language"? I had assumed it was the latter, given our discussion of rule following.
  • Philosophical Investigations, reading it together.
    36. And we do here what we do in a host of similar cases: because we cannot specify any one bodily action which we call pointing at the shape (as opposed to the colour, for example), we say that a mental, spiritual activity corresponds to these words.
    Where our language suggests a body and there is none: there, we should like to say, is a spirit.