What is the difference between "dialectical" and "bivalently-framed?" Is it that with the dialectic, the goal is to reach consensus, while with bivalently-framed, we have to make a choice? — T Clark
Bivalence is a reduction to two options. That sets up the further reduction to just the one monistic choice - as the other becomes the not-true.
This is
@Banno's pattern of thought. You can always tell a reductionist by the way they build their conclusion into their terminology. Determinism is opposed to in-determinism. Sense is opposed to non-sense. By this kind of rhetorical trick, they hope to reinforce the notion that truth is something monistic. You either see things their way or you are simply opting for the option that their jargon already negates.
The sign of dialectical or triadic systems thinking is that the poles of any metaphysical dichotomy each have their own name. A dichotomy is where both choices are "true" in standing as the positive limit of the other. One doesn't negate the other. Each negates the other. And what do you get from a double negative?
:grin:
So instead of determinate vs indeterminate, it becomes determinate vs vague. You don't signal that one choice is wrong by pointing out that it is merely an absence of some particular metaphysical quality. You give both their own proper name.
A small point of jargon. But important where folk are mostly arguing rhetorically.
Anyway, the difference can be summed up that by saying the principle of bivalence is the logical claim that propositions are to be judged either true or false - true or not true. And a dialectical or dichotomous logic says that any "bivalent" division of metaphysical possibility has to obey the rule of being "mutually exclusive/jointly exhaustive". So to be "true", each has to stand as the logical negatation the other. Or to be more accurate, each has to be the formal inverse of reciprocal of the other.
So for example, vagueness is defined as that which is lacking all definiteness. And definiteness is that which is lacking all vagueness. But for each to have a measurable lack of the other, there must be that other to stand as a counterfactual possibility.
We are thus making statements about qualities being defined mutually "in the limit". A reciprocal relation.
Vagueness = 1/determinate. Determinate = 1/vagueness.
This is why a metaphysical dichotomy leads on to a triadic or holistic resolution - a Hegelian synthesis or Peircean semiotic. You have two things that exist as the third thing of their mutually co-dependent relation.
So when it comes to metaphysics as a historical practice, you can see how a division of thought might arise.
There are the reductionists who want to arrive at some monism and so they either proclaim the monisms of Idealism or Realism as "the one true path of all right thinking folk", or they get upset by paradoxes that arise and simply reject metaphysics as a discipline in its entirety.
The other path is the one that successful metaphysics has always taken since the ancient Greeks first developed the two general approaches to logical thought. And it is no surprise if logical holism might win the game. Nature is of course a cosmic whole. (Well, that is the general hypothesis that has worked out so far.)
That's why I'm so attracted to pragmatism as a way of approaching the world. I am self-aware enough to see that has as much, or more, to do with temperament as it does with reason. — T Clark
Pragmatism is logical holism. So you can pick it for that reason.
Reductionism is fine too. It works really well if you want to build machinery or even mechanise human society and the human mind. Simple cause and effect thinking is neat little everyday tool of thought.
But if you want to do metaphysics, you have to study metaphysics for the actual logic it employs.
I am skeptical of bringing physics into metaphysical arguments. It's often a symptom of wrong-headed thinking. Is that there one of them "category errors.?" Quantum mechanics seems to be a prime candidate for this mistake. — T Clark
I don't see "metaphysics" as something beyond science. It clearly grounds science. And science then delivers a pragmatic judgement on the abductive speculations.
What do you think metaphysics ought to deliver as its social good? Does it have a purpose? I can't see any other reason to "do metaphysics" except to attempt to deduce the truth of reality from first principles ... and so set yourself up with clear hypotheses worth the effort of empirical test.
So pragmatism rules. Otherwise it is just spinning tales that make no difference.
The reason why quantum physics keeps coming up is that it simply destroys "reductionist privilege" at root.
You can cobble together a decoherent "maths of reality" out of a combo of wave mechanics and statistical mechanics. You can arrive at an effective collapse of the wavefunction - with only a last tiny grain of uncertainty or vagueness. But in the end, there is no closure, no actual wavefunction collapse. Monism loses. The irreducible triadicity of a holistic systems logic has to be accepted.
So metaphysics provides two general cultural models of reality - the reductionist and the holistic. They are both just models - good for their various applications. One is great for seeing reality as a causal machine. A mereology of parts. The other jumps to the other pole in seeing reality as an organic whole. The Cosmos becomes something quite "other".