The problem is exactly
how we successfully interpret malapropisms despite the fact that they are examples of incorrect, mistaken, unconventional, and thus novel, language use. Davidson is arguing that the odd success of malapropisms places conventional understanding of what counts as having a language, or perhaps what's needed for successful communication, into question.
Davidson suggests that convention has it that, and I quote...
...in the case of language the hearer shares a complex system or theory with the speaker, a system which makes possible the articulation of logical relations between utterances, and explains the ability to interpret novel utterances in an organized way.
This... ...has been suggested, in one form or another, by many philosophers and linguists, and I assume it must in some sense be right. The difficulty lies in getting clear about what this sense is.
If someone wishes to argue that Davidson does not have the basic conventional understanding right, then the burden is upon them to show how his account above is found lacking or wanting. That is, if there is a germane difference between the two, then it needs set out here. Until then, I'm assuming that his account of convention is close enough.
He further expands upon this conventional understanding by setting out what it would take. In other words, what be the case in order for a speaker and listener to even be able to share a complex system or theory which makes possible the articulation of logical relations between utterances, and explains the ability to interpret novel utterances in an organized way. He's setting out what he believes to be a bare minimum criterion, according to conventional standards, for all cases of successful communication/interpretation, which also explains our ability to interpret novel utterances.
As a result of all the reasons I've given on page nine, I find Davidson's notion of
first meaning to be inadequate for taking proper account of any malapropisms. Given that his notions of
passing and
prior theory are grounded upon his notion of
first meaning, and since that is found lacking, so too are his notions of
passing and
prior theory. Although, the issue may be his use of "intention". If that is conventional, then that may be the issue. The more I read, and understand, the more I believe that that may be the case.
I've left
first meaning out of the principles(criterion for linguistic competence), for I take them to be an accurate enough account of the conventional understanding and/or account that he's placing under scrutiny. In other words, these three principles serve as an adequate minimalist criterion for attaining, acquiring, and/or otherwise possessing the linguistic competence necessary for successful communication/interpretation of any kind, and that is what's in question.
(1) A competent speaker or interpreter is able to interpret utterances, his own or those of others, on the basis of the semantic properties of the parts, or words, in the utterance, and the structure of the utterance. For this to be possible, there must be systematic relations between the meanings of utterances.
(2) For speaker and interpreter to communicate successfully and regularly, they must share a method of interpretation of the sort described in (1).
(3) The systematic knowledge or competence of the speaker or interpreter is learned in advance of occasions of interpretation and is conventional in character.
According to Davidson, for all successful communication, what must be shared is the interpreter’s and the speaker’s understanding of the speaker’s words, which the three principles above do not effectively outline. With malapropisms what is common to the cases is that the speaker expects to be, and is, interpreted as the speaker intended although the interpreter did not have a correct theory in advance.
All the things Davidson assumes an interpreter knows or can do depend on his having a mature set of concepts, and being at home with the business of linguistic communication. His problem is to describe what is involved in the idea of ‘having a language’. He finds that none of the proposals satisfy the demand for a description of an ability that speaker and interpreter share and that is adequate to interpretation.
I suppose I'm positing that the ability to attribute meaning to an otherwise meaningless utterance(to the interpreter) satisfies the demand that Davidson claims to be missing.