Things are determined to be true in reference to the criteria for truth, correct? — Agustino
I don't think that's correct, no. The determination of truth differs from the criteria of truth. Determination of truth deals with method -- epistemology. The criteria of truth is the necessary and suffucient conditions which make some truth-bearer true. So we might say, for instance, that those conditions are 1) A statement corresponds to a state of affairs, and thereby be a correspondence theorist about truth.
But
how we determine what is true would differ from this. Truth is correspondence, but our epistemology may be empiricist, and largely borrowing from scientific practice.
The criteria of truth is more along the lines of asking "What is the metaphysics of truth?" -- and if we are consistent correspondence theorists [using the above briefly stated theory of correspondence], so it seems to me, then our theory of truth must either be not-true [perhaps not truth-apt], or it must correspond to a state of affairs.
But just because truth, in this scenario, must correspond to a state of affairs that wouldn't mean that this is how we check to see if truth corresponds to a state of affairs. If we are empricists then I'm not sure that you could do so -- you would have to conclude, to be consistent, that though the theory of truth corresponds to some state of affairs that there was no way to check said state of affairs, and so we don't
know -- since justification is based on empricism [how we come to determine truth] -- that this is the case.
See the difference?
Reason determines that this is an irrational idea, regardless of the fact that you choose to say it, believe it, or whatever. The fact that you expect the criterion of truth to be true says something about you, not about how things really are.
Who is this reason, and how do you speak with them?
The only argument in the above being: All Normative standards are values. Judgment requires a normative standard. Therefore, judgment requires values.
— Moliere
Who says Reason cannot determine a normative standard given our nature and the nature of the world?
What would it mean for reason to do so? "Given our nature and the nature of the world" seems to evoke Hume. Which, if we are separating reason and passion as you seem to be doing, would be applicable.
Also, I agree that the good is not "what seems to work for us" -- I stated that this is how one finds the good, not that this is what it is to be good.
— Moliere
It seems to me that being drugged the whole day is good. So therefore, :s I am on my way towards finding the good? Because seriously, there are people for whom it seems that staying in a drugged state is the best thing. But we know that such languishing is not good. Therefore "what seems to work for us" seems to be quite a bad method for finding the good in this circumstance. Methods for finding the good must be objective, and not tainted by our cognitive biases and subjectivity.
That's the catch, though. There's no such objectivity outside of our cognitive biases and our subjectivity. You couldn't go to someone who believes drugs are the path to happiness and objectively show them that they are in the wrong. They have to find it for themselves.
You can identify the good through pure reason too. It just takes reflection and a certain mindfulness to detach yourself from how you would feel about something, and instead determine how things really are. How should human beings really behave given such and such a human nature and such and such a world? If a human being was really conscious of his/her nature, and the nature of the world, how would they behave? What would they do? That is why ethics comes after metaphysics (the study of the world in the broadest context), physics (as per Epicurus/Lucretius, the study of the world and of ourselves from a physical point of view), and epistemology (the study of our cognitive faculties). If you answer these questions before, ethics becomes a matter of pure reason, pace Spinoza.
Again, I think we're evoking Hume's critique here, especially with all the emphasis on pure reason.
Maybe it's just a terminological disagreement. I would just say that the romantic is following the ethic of a romanticism. That is the type of person they are. And, sure, the romantic is good in accord with what the romantic cares about. But not in accord with what the Epicurean cares about. But does this make him against ethics? I wouldn't say so.
— Moliere
The romantic may be following the ethic of romanticism. So what? The question here is, should he? Is that the best thing for him? You seem to say yes. I seem to say that there may be some desires/potentials within him that would be truer to his nature and (s)he is not aware of them for example.
I don't think that the committed romantic has desires, at least, which are truer to their nature. Lord Byron had no need for Epicurs. If you are to ask me, when I look at his life I see it as a reductio of Romanticism. But that's just myself. Lord Byron would have to see the folly of his ways in order to be brought back -- but he could consistently hold to romantic values.
When I used "against ethics", I meant against the ethical tradition. Epicurus, Epictetus, Spinoza, et al. develop very very similar ethics (especially in practice); they are all based on a dictatorship of Reason, and the differences come from a different conception of man and his place in the world. The stoics think that one should control one's passions, the Epicureans that one should minimise one's desires. Is that really that different? One achieves it by being tense, and watching every single moment to make sure that no immorality enters their mind, and the other achieves it by desiring little, and relaxing into the bossom of the existence. But these stances are all developed from overall conceptions of the world; they are developed by pure reason.
In this reading, the romantic is "against ethics" precisely because his ethics isn't one based on the dictatorship of Reason - Epicurus, Spinoza, Epictetus, etc. are pure reason (or very close to it).
I suppose our disagreement, then, has more to do with the notion "Pure reason", and on how to read ethical theorists.
I don't think that I would commit to a belief that
any ancient ethicist relies on Pure Reason to establish their ethics. The notion of reason in ancient thought differs from the notion of reason in the era of Spinoza, et al. They are not enlightenment thinkers, and while there are distinctions between pathos and logos, etc., there is no effort to vindicate their ethical stances by the light of pure reason. They aren't even really looking at ethics in the same way as enlightenment and early modern thinkers do.
They use rational argument, and believe that beliefs change character, and that changing beliefs -- through philosophy and reason and whatnot -- will change character. But this is so very different from enlightenment ethical thought.
Epicurus, especially, seems an odd man out here. He didn't even believe in the study of
logic, except insofar that it would help in the project of pleasure. The stoics thought logic was valuable unto itself, but Epicurus was no logician, and even made fun of philosophical theorists [like Aristotle] who would talk too much about ethics while not doing anything to cure the soul. Philosophy, too, is not valuable unto itself, but is valuable only insofar that it brings pleasure to the sick. That's his focus -- certainly not the sort of beacon of pure reason that you seem to take him for.
Not that I have a problem with that, obviously. Like I noted, I can go as far as Kant, which in some ways is to concede too much ground to reason anyways -- but his work was a
critique of Pure Reason. And even his ethics uses notions like a "fact of reason", which seems sensible, but they are wholly embedded in the subject. As long as you are consistent, and if everyone does things your way the world remains consistent, you are permitted to do what you will. With standards like that -- which is a normal criticism of deontology -- you can certainly derive values which are in conflict with one another, and which would require a person to choose between them. How do you choose, if Pure Reason allows this sort of conflict? Pure Reason is like the donkey equally spaced between two haystacks, watching both. The donkey needs a swift kick, and reason needs a purpose to operate -- which, so I would say, is where our emotional lives enter the picture.
And you are correct. There is something question-begging to this. But, as I said, all ethics presuppose themselves. You can question an ethic -- but only in light of another one.