• Riddle of idealism
    To be cautious as W exegesis, I think you would need to add the qualifier "just" between the "not" and "the subjective experience". Some people read W as denying outright that the inner has any role to play at all in determining the meaning of words, which I do not think he does. What I think he does is challenge the idea that "inner" here means "necessarily private and unknowable to others". Anyway, that's my interpretation, which might be wrong of course.jkg20

    That's an interesting take, but how do you reconcile it with the closing line of §293: "if we construe the grammar of the expression of sensation on the model of ‘object and name’, the object drops out of consideration as irrelevant"?
  • Riddle of idealism
    The obvious rejoinder to this is dreams. Our own dreams are the equivalent to a beetle in a box as nobody else can experience a dream we have. And yet we can easily communicate dreams we remember to other people.

    So how does that work? People do legitimately dream and they do legitimately talk and write about dreams remembered. We can't check their accuracy. But we can certainly understand what is being related, more or less.
    Marchesk

    Your "obvious rejoinder" could be any subjective sensation, but I think it misses the point of Wittgenstein's example. It is not about an inability to communicate regarding dreams or sensations. As I quoted earlier, the target of Wittgenstein's beetle example is the view that each of us "knows what 'pain' means only from one's own case, for it seems that it is the sensation one has that gives the word its meaning".

    If I were to tell you that I had an amazing dream while driving to work the other day, you might think I must be talking about a day dream. If I were to insist that I was not day dreaming but really dreaming, then you would have to question whether I was using the word correctly and actually knew what a dream was.

    This (hastily drawn) example is intended to show that we do not know the meaning of the word 'dream' only from our own case, nor is it the sensation of dreaming one has that gives the word its meaning. Otherwise, why should you not accept my story?

    To repeat the dilemma I quoted earlier: "If what is in the box is relevant to the meaning of 'beetle' then no one else can understand what I mean by 'beetle'; and if 'beetle' is understood by others, it cannot signify what is in each person's private box."

    If I understand Wittgenstein correctly (and I might not), then it is not the subjective experience of dreaming that determines the meaning of the word. Obviously, we are all taught how to use language, including words such as 'pain', 'dream', and 'remember', by others who cannot access one's private sensations. This all relates to Wittgenstein's remarks on the misguided notion of a private language.

    296. “Right; but there is a Something there all the same, which accompanies my cry of pain! And it is on account of this that I utter it. And this Something is what is important — and frightful.” — Only to whom are we telling this? And on what occasion?

    298. The very fact that we’d so much like to say “This is the important thing” — while we point for ourselves to the sensation — is enough to show how much we are inclined to say something which is not informative.
    — Wittgenstein
  • Riddle of idealism
    That we can recognise pain behaviour when we see it is not the issue, of course we can. That Wittgenstein acknowledged this is not an insight of his. The issue that concerns metaphysics and on which Wittgenstein seems silent is embedded in Metaphysician Undercover's question: what makes the difference between mock pain behavoiur and real pain behaviour.jkg20

    It's a good thing I only referred to real pain behaviour then, I guess.

    Wittgenstein is silent on the issue of real vs. mock pain behaviour at §293 because that's not what he's talking about in that section. However, I understand that you and MU are interested in the question, so I agree that Wittgenstein is inconsiderate for not addressing it there.

    Anyway, I only entered this discussion to correct MU's claim that Wittgenstein contradicts himself at §293, which I think I have done. MU won't agree, of course. I was foolish to think that he might actually try and understand Wittgenstein.

    Here's that quote I mentioned. It probably won't satisfy radical sceptics, but Wittgenstein discusses pain and pain-behaviour throughout the late 200s/early 300s of Philosophical Investigations if you're interested:

    303. “I can only believe that someone else is in pain, but I know it if I am.” — Yes: one can resolve to say “I believe he is in pain” instead of “He is in pain”. But that’s all. —– What looks like an explanation here, or like a statement about a mental process, in truth just exchanges one way of talking for another which, while we are doing philosophy, seems to us the more apt.
    Just try — in a real case — to doubt someone else’s fear or pain!
    — Wittgenstein
  • Riddle of idealism
    As stated in my previous post, I see the issue of Wittgenstein's beetle as attacking the view that each of us knows what 'pain' means only from our own case and that it is the sensation one has which gives the word its meaning. If the issue you are concerned with is of mock vs. real pain-behaviour, then you might need to look elsewhere, but from memory I think Wittgenstein does say somewhere that we can recognise real pain-behaviour when we see it. I will try and find the quote another time.
  • Riddle of idealism

    109. It was correct that our considerations must not be scientific ones. The feeling ‘that it is possible, contrary to our preconceived ideas, to think this or that’ — whatever that may mean — could be of no interest to us. (The pneumatic conception of thinking.) And we may not advance any kind of theory. There must not be anything hypothetical in our considerations. All explanation must disappear, and description alone must take its place. And this description gets its light — that is to say, its purpose — from the philosophical problems. These are, of course, not empirical problems; but they are solved through an insight into the workings of our language, and that in such a way that these workings are recognized — despite an urge to misunderstand them. The problems are solved, not by coming up with new discoveries, but by assembling what we have long been familiar with. Philosophy is a struggle against the bewitchment of our understanding by the resources of our language. — Wittgenstein
  • Riddle of idealism
    Pain behaviour and mock pain behaviour might be different, but there is also the apparent similarity to account for. If one suggests, quite naturally, that there is a common denominator between mock and genuine pain behaviour, e.g. the bodily movements, including the movements of the larynx and lips, then the question arises, "so what is added in the genuine case to distinguish it from the mock case?" The response, "it is not nothing but it is not something either " or "you are being lead astray by language" then just rings to some like a hollow refusal to engage with the issue.jkg20

    I don't see this as the issue that Wittgenstein seeks to address with his beetle in the box, which may explain why you find his so-called response(s) as "like a hollow refusal to engage with the issue". Almost (if not) always, Wittgenstein's concern is with language. I consider the beetle in the box to be an extension of his preceding comments on private language.

    Quoting from the book Wittgenstein and His Interpreters: Essays in Memory of Gordon Baker, from a chapter by David G. Stern, who writes:

    Hacker identifies the target of the beetle story as a form of semi-solipsism: the view that each of us "knows what 'pain' means only from one's own case, for it seems that it is the sensation one has that gives the word its meaning". [...]

    [This] construal of the grammar of expression of sensation on the model of name and object, leads to a dilemma: [...]

    "If what is in the box is relevant to the meaning of 'beetle' then no one else can understand what I mean by 'beetle'; and if 'beetle' is understood by others, it cannot signify what is in each person's private box." (Hacker 1990)
    — David G. Stern

    I offer this as a more appropriate reading of the issue of the beetle example. Framing the issue as a linguistic concern is also supported by what Wittgenstein immediately goes on to state in his next section:

    305. “But you surely can’t deny that, for example, in remembering, an inner process takes place.” — What gives the impression that we want to deny anything? When one says, “Still, an inner process does take place here” — one wants to go on: “After all, you see it.” And it is this inner process that one means by the word “remembering”. — The impression that we wanted to deny something arises from our setting our face against the picture of an ‘inner process’. What we deny is that the picture of an inner process gives us the correct idea of the use of the word “remember”. Indeed, we’re saying that this picture, with its ramifications, stands in the way of our seeing the use of the word as it is. — Wittgenstein
  • Riddle of idealism
    I'm surprised anybody was reading along. Thanks.
  • Riddle of idealism
    304. “But you will surely admit that there is a difference between pain behaviour with pain and pain-behaviour without pain.” — Admit it? What greater difference could there be? — “And yet you again and again reach the conclusion that the sensation itself is a Nothing.” — Not at all. It’s not a Something, but not a Nothing either! The conclusion was only that a Nothing would render the same service as a Something about which nothing could be said. We’ve only rejected the grammar which tends to force itself on us here.

    The paradox disappears only if we make a radical break with the idea that language always functions in one way, always serves the same purpose: to convey thoughts — which may be about houses, pains, good and evil, or whatever.
    — Wittgenstein
  • Riddle of idealism
    Therefore the premises of 1&2 describe a language-game in which "beetle" refers to something in the box, and 3&4 describe a completely different, unrelated language-game, within which "beetle" is used in a completely different, unrelated way.Metaphysician Undercover

    You are overlooking the crucial conditional. Again.

    You are ignoring that the word has a use in these people's language.

    I don't know whether it's a problem which is peculiar to English, but there is a difficulty in trying to describe the thing in the box without referring to it as a positive "thing", where it instead refers to either a something or a nothing. Yet, this is what the word "beetle" refers to: whatever is in the box, a something or a nothing. What would you call this instead of a "thing"? Is there a more neutral term?

    You took issue with my earlier use of "contents" of the box, I suspect because this deflated your argument, but that's really what the word refers to - some unknown quantity, an algebraic 'x', some "thing" which might not be a thing, just whatever it is that is in the box....or not. Whatever is (or is not) inside the box is called a "beetle".

    Can you think of a better word than "thing" for the contents of a box which could be anything or nothing; a non-positive synonym for "thing"; a thing which is "not even a something"?

    Anyway, that's where I see you going wrong here. Obviously, apart from your complete misunderstanding of all of Wittgenstein's work, including his private language argument. To avoid further repetition, I'll leave it there.
  • Riddle of idealism
    3. Suppose that the word "beetle" has a use in these people's language nonetheless.

    4. Then the word "beetle" would not be as the name of a thing. The thing in the box does not belong to the language game at all. The box could effectively be empty, as this would make no difference to the language game or the meaning/use of the word "beetle".
    — Luke

    These are the questionable statements. This use of "beetle" is something completely distinct from, other than, to refer to the thing in the box.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    Where do you infer this from?


    Everyone uses the word "beetle" to refer to some unknown, inaccessible thing inside a box. You seem to accept this. It doesn't matter what the inaccessible thing in a box is, everyone calls it a "beetle" anyway. How does this change if there is nothing in a box? Everyone else's box is inaccessible and everyone would still call whatever is (or is not) in a box a "beetle" anyway. That's how the word is used and that's what it means. Your complaint that the word is supposed to refer to some positive thing and that it cannot refer to nothing carries no weight, because whatever is in a box makes no difference to the meaning or use of the word.

    This is the point of the conditional, that if the word has a use in these people's language, then the word "beetle" would not be the name of a thing and this thing does not belong to the language game at all. The word would not be used to refer to anything in particular, but would only refer generally to whatever is in a box, which could include nothing. As Wittgenstein says: "The thing in the box has no place in the language-game at all; not even as a something"
  • Riddle of idealism
    That's irrelevant, I'm not talking about "anyone", I'm talking specifically about the person whose box is empty. That person would be practising deception, according to the contradiction in the terms of the analogy.Metaphysician Undercover

    I'm talking about Wittgenstein's example at §293, in summary:

    1. Suppose that everyone has a box with something in it which we call a "beetle".

    2. Suppose that no one can ever look into anyone else's box, and everyone says he knows what a beetle is only by looking at his own beetle. Then it would be possible for everyone to have something different in their box.

    3. Suppose that the word "beetle" has a use in these people's language nonetheless.

    4. Then the word "beetle" would not be as the name of a thing. The thing in the box does not belong to the language game at all. The box could effectively be empty, as this would make no difference to the language game or the meaning/use of the word "beetle".

    There is no contradiction here. He doesn't say both that there is something and nothing in the box. He says only that if the word was to have a use in these people's language, then it would have no effect on the language game if the box was empty.
  • Riddle of idealism
    What is really the case is that when you have named the thing in your box "beetle", and there is nothing in your box, the word is necessarily used to deceive. The deception pervades all usage because you are implying that there is something in the box that you have named "beetle" when you know there is not.Metaphysician Undercover

    Wittgenstein doesn't say that you name it. He says that the word has a use in these people's language. Anyone can learn the language, of course, and learn to use the word "beetle" accordingly.

    Until you make it known to others that there really is nothing in your box which is called "beetle", i.e. that the beetle is a fiction (in which case you are not using "beetle" to refer to the thing in your box anymore), all the usage of that term will be instances of deception.Metaphysician Undercover

    Unless they make it known that they are deaf, a deaf person is practising deception with any and all usage of the word "sounds"? Do you realise how absurd this is?

    On the other hand, when there really is something in the box, one might still use the word for deception as well.Metaphysician Undercover

    Are you back-pedalling on your former agreement that the contents of the box are irrelevant to the use of the word?

    What is irrelevant to the question of whether the use of the word depends on the contents of the box is your trivial concern regarding a particular use of the word in order to deceive. The same word or statement could be used in the same way, with the same meaning, in either an honest or a dishonest fashion. It makes no difference to the use/meaning of the word or statement.
  • Riddle of idealism
    If the "use" of the word is to refer to something which is not there, as if it were there, when the person knows that it is not there, then the "use" is deception. The person is using the words to deceive.

    A person can say "I hear sounds", whether or not the person actually hears sounds. The "use" is dependent on whether the person actually hears sounds or not, because if sounds are not actually heard the "use" is deception. The person is using the words to deceive.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    The word could be used in this way, to deceive, but it need not be. However, it has been your claim that the word can only be used in this way if the sense is lacking; that any use of the word must be a deception.
  • Riddle of idealism
    Again, I did not mention that the deaf person is "referring to sounds which he or she is hearing". All I am talking about, and all I have been talking about throughout, is the simple use of the word. Is it deceptive for a deaf person to use the word "sounds"?
  • Riddle of idealism
    If the deaf person is not hearing sounds, recognizes and understands this, and yet is talking about hearing sounds, that is deceptionMetaphysician Undercover

    I never said that they claim to be hearing sounds, only that they can talk about sounds. It does not affect their use of the word "sounds".
  • Riddle of idealism
    Whether or not there is something in the box is always relevant under the premise of the analogy, because what you would call "the same use" would be deception when there is nothing in the box, and therefore it would not really be the same, the use would be to deceive.Metaphysician Undercover

    You never answered my earlier question: Is it deceptive for a deaf person to talk about sounds and for a blind person to talk about colours? What's the deception?
  • Riddle of idealism
    Do you see your own contradiction in the position that it is irrelevant to the use of the word when there is something in the box but relevant to the use of the word when there is nothing in the box?
  • Riddle of idealism
    Deception is irrelevant to this discussion.
  • Riddle of idealism
    There you go, changing the terms again to "contents"Metaphysician Undercover

    I didn't change any terms. You said: "I agree with the first part here, "the particular contents of the particular box is irrelevant"."

    The word could still be used in exactly the same way even if the box was empty, despite your tirades about deception.
    — Luke

    No! Obviously this is false! if you are talking to me about the thing in your box, when there is nothing in your box, and you know that there is nothing in your box, then you are practising deception.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    I didn't make any claims here about practising or not practising deception. I said that the word could still be used in the same way even if the box was empty. Your response does not address this at all. Your position seems to be that the box's contents are irrelevant to the use of the word if there is something in the box but relevant to the use of the word if there is nothing in the box.
  • Riddle of idealism
    The description is of something in the box.Metaphysician Undercover

    See PI 290-291 regarding your use of "description" here.

    Did you not read what I wrote? Or do you have some sort of mental block which prevents you from understanding simple logic? The description is of something in the box. What it is, which in the box, is irrelevant to that description. It is simply stated that there is something in the box. How can you think that this means that it is also irrelevant whether or not there is even something in the box? It is described as something in the box, so whether or not there is something in the box is what makes the description true or false. How can you claim that whether or not there is something in the box is irrelevant, just because it is stipulated that what it is which is in the box is irrelevant. That is a completely illogical conclusion.Metaphysician Undercover

    We are talking about the use of the word 'beetle'. As you have agreed, the contents of the box are irrelevant to the use of the word. That is, the use of the word does not rely on the contents of the box. Why should it be any different if the box was empty? The word could still be used in exactly the same way even if the box was empty, despite your tirades about deception.

    "That is to say: if we construe the grammar of the expression of sensation on the model of 'object and designation' the object drops out of consideration as irrelevant." (PI 293)

    People feel pleasure, pain, all sorts of emotions, and sensations. So the analogy of "beetle in the box" is completely inapplicable in the first place, because there must be all sorts of different things in the box, beetles, ants, caterpillars, butterflies, etc., just like there are all sorts of feelings other than pain within the person.Metaphysician Undercover

    Ever heard of a thought experiment?

    So the issue is how do we know how to give which name to which thing in the box, and this is not even broached by Wiitgenstein, who is presenting the analogy as one thing in the box.Metaphysician Undercover

    You think this is the issue?

    How do you know any words (and their uses)? Did you invent them?
  • Riddle of idealism
    The fact that the thing in the box could be anything does not mean that the thing in the box could be nothing. If there is nothing in the box the person is practising deception.Metaphysician Undercover

    Simply by using the word 'beetle' one is "practising deception"? Are deaf people practising deception when they talk about sounds, and blind people when they talk about colours?

    Wittgenstein has indicated that this is a possibility, a person could imply "I have something in the box", by referring to the beetle in the box, when there is nothing in the box.Metaphysician Undercover

    The only implication here is your own stubborn assumption that the use of the word must depend on what is inside the box.

    Therefore it is possible that language could be used for deception.Metaphysician Undercover

    Of course it's possible. Did you think it was not possible?

    I agree with the first part here, "the particular contents of the particular box is irrelevant".Metaphysician Undercover

    Great! Then it is also irrelevant (to the use of the word) whether a particular box contains something or not.

    Is someone "practising deception" if they talk about unicorns or Santa Claus (since these don't really refer to anything)?

    The example does not indicate why any of us is inclined to call the thing in the box by that specific name.Metaphysician Undercover

    Probably for the same reasons that any of us uses any given language at all.

    It's not a real example. There is no rule, or convention, which stipulates when you have a feeling within your body (beetle in the box), you must call it "pain". There are all sorts of different feelings within your body, therefore all sorts of different things within your box. So Wittgenstein's example obscures this fact, the multitude of things in the box, hiding the need to be able to distinguish one thing from another, within one's own box, with the premise that there is only one thing in the box, thereby establishing the groundwork for the deception. Recognizing this fact brings the deception into focus.Metaphysician Undercover

    Let's discuss Wittgenstein's actual example, though, instead of importing into it all of these extraneous details and assumptions.

    The whole idea that there is only one thing in the box is faulty.Metaphysician Undercover

    Are we discussing Wittgenstein's example here, or some other scenario that is only in your mind?
  • Riddle of idealism
    When everyone knows that what is in one's own box is not the same thing which is in another's box, and each person calls what is in one's own box a "beetle", why would anyone believe that what someone means by "beetle is the same as what someone else means by beetle?Metaphysician Undercover

    What is in one box is not necessarily different from what is in another; only that nobody can know what is in another's box.

    Regardless, if everyone assumes that what is in everyone else's box is different to what is in theirs, then the word "beetle" can only be used to refer to "the contents of a person's box", or to "the thing in the box, whatever it is".

    Therefore, it doesn't matter what particular thing is in anyone's box. The particular contents of a particular box is irrelevant to the use of the word. The word can be used only to refer to some unknown thing in the box. As Wittgenstein says "...one can 'divide through' by the thing in the box; it cancels out, whatever it is." The word could still be used in this way even if there were nothing in the box.

    Clearly, under the terms of the example no one would think that any two people would mean the same thing with the word "beetle".Metaphysician Undercover

    Surely, "beetle" means "the contents of a person's box".

    Otherwise, if nobody knows what anybody else means by "beetle", then how can this word be used in the language at all?

    Since "beetle" refers to what's in all those different boxes...Metaphysician Undercover

    The word does refer to what's in all (or any of) those different boxes, but the particular contents of those boxes is irrelevant to the word's use.

    ...two people would only mean the same thing when using the word, if they were both referring to what's in one particular box. If this is case, then which beetle is being referred to, would have to be indicated in some other way.Metaphysician Undercover

    What "other way" is there? Maybe one person could point at another while saying "beetle", or they could even say "your beetle" to make reference to the contents of that person's particular box. But the word would still only mean "the contents of your box, whatever it is".
  • Riddle of idealism
    That's the way we use words, they indicate a type of thing, yet we also use them to refer to particulars.Metaphysician Undercover

    That's not necessarily the way we use words. Unless you have a supporting argument that it is? But I can think of a few words that are used in neither of these ways.

    So the conclusion, that the thing in the box has no role in the language game is not valid, because it does not account for that role, in which the person uses the word to refer to the thing in their own box, or to the thing in someone else's box.Metaphysician Undercover

    Everyone says they know what a beetle is only by looking at their own beetle. So how does a person know that what they mean by "beetle" is the same as what anyone else means by it? How can the word be used in this way?
  • Riddle of idealism
    This led to a contradiction in the reading of Wittgenstein. The premise of the example is that everyone has something in the box, but Wittgenstein later says "the box might even be empty". Clearly we have a contradiction here. "Everyone has something in the box", and "the box might be empty", are incompatible.Metaphysician Undercover

    Wittgenstein begins with the supposition that everyone has "a box with something in it which we call a 'beetle'". Nobody can ever look into anyone else's box and everyone says they know what a beetle is only by looking at their own beetle. In that case, it's possible for each person to have something different in their box, or for what's in the box to be constantly changing.

    Wittgenstein then asks:

    "But what if these people's word "beetle" had a use nonetheless?"

    THEN it would not be the name of a thing. THEN the thing in the box doesn't belong to the language-game at all. THEN the box might even be (or may as well be) empty.

    Whatever is in the box, or in everyone's box, would be irrelevant if the word "beetle" had an established use in the language game. How do I know that what you mean by "beetle" is the same as what I mean by "beetle"? Because that's the assumption here: that the word "beetle" has a conventional use nonetheless. If each person can only know what's in their own box and not what's in anyone else's, and yet we can all still somehow use and understand the meaning of the word "beetle", then the putative thing in each person's box is irrelevant and "cancels out, whatever it is".
  • Riddle of idealism
    Another Wittgenstein quote to add to @jjAmEs' comments:

    307. "Are you not really a behaviourist in disguise? Aren't you at bottom really saying that everything except human behaviour is a fiction?"—If I do speak of a fiction, then it is of a grammatical fiction.

    308. [...] And now it looks as if we had denied mental processes. And naturally we don't want to deny them.
  • What do you think about this proof of free will?
    3. If determinism is true, then whatever can be done, is done. (premise)

    This could be restated as 'whatever is possible is actual', which implies that there are no other possibilities except for what happens. [Should implies can, but if determinism is true, can equals is.]

    However, this implies that if determinism is true, then we cannot necessarily refrain from believing falsehoods. We can only refrain from doing something where it is possible to do something else.
  • What do you think about this proof of free will?
    Couldn't the same argument be used to prove any belief (including falsehoods)?
  • The fundamental question of Metaphysics: Why something rather than nothing
    But there is no contradiction, and it makes perfect sense, in saying that "nothing is longer than A" (adopting the assumptions of the OP).
  • The fundamental question of Metaphysics: Why something rather than nothing
    It seems nonsensical to me because I'm unable to make sense of it. What does it mean to say that no-thing is longer than no-thing (or that no philosopher is smarter than no philosopher)?
  • The fundamental question of Metaphysics: Why something rather than nothing
    I meant nothing personal by it. I was just trying to emphasise what I see as a problem with your OP argument. Ignoring that it looks like an illicit move from the premises to the conclusion, the conclusion itself seems nonsensical (that no thing is longer than no thing, or that no philosopher is smarter than no philosopher).
  • The fundamental question of Metaphysics: Why something rather than nothing
    There is no philosopher smarter than @TheMadFool.
    There is no philosopher dumber than Plato.
    Therefore, no philosopher is smarter than no philosopher.
  • Philosophy on Twitter
    Once again, I'm oblivious to the obvious, At least that helps to explain why my site and Internet searches returned few results. Thanks jamal :up:
  • Philosophy on Twitter
    Thanks, jamalrob. Are there instructions around somewhere, or can you tell me how? Is it with [url=] [/url]?
  • Intuitions About Time
    I doubt it, but that's probably for another discussion.
  • Intuitions About Time
    My question is, what is it in flux, or change, that provides sufficient reason for the permanence (or apparent permanence) of general laws, e.g. the laws of physics? The Second Law of Thermodynamics would appear to be permanent, for example. I grant you that the Second Law bears on change, but this does not locate the suffient reason for that law in change.Pneumenon

    I don't wish to interrupt the current exchange, and perhaps the discussion has already moved on, but Google defines an intuition as "the ability to understand something instinctively, without the need for conscious reasoning". The laws of physics seem to rely on a lot of conscious reasoning, no?