Comments

  • The ineffable
    When I read this it feels like it'd go the same with objects... we cannot say objects, and so they are ineffable.Moliere

    I don't know exactly what you mean by "we cannot say objects". That was not my intended point. I was following Banno's reasoning and his conflation of knowing how to do something with doing it.

    However, I might agree if you mean that, loosely speaking, what can only be shown cannot be said (and is therefore ineffable). You can show someone what red looks like, but can you explain, e.g. to a blind person, what red looks like such that they know how to identify red objects? That was the point of my reference to Mary's Room, which went unaddressed; also, my reference to PI 78. Perhaps a blind person could identify red via Braille, but could you explain to someone with no sense of touch how to read Braille (i.e. how Braille feels)?

    We can find metaphors and descriptions for different shades of red if we both share the same sensory capacities - you then already have a foothold on what it's like to sense red. Or I can simply show it to you and then I don't need to explain it. Perhaps there is no need to explain some things just because we share the same sensory capacities. However, regardless of the whether we need to explain it or not, if what red looks like cannot be put into words (i.e. such that you can learn/know how to identify red objects without ever sensing red objects) then I would call that aspect of seeing red "ineffable".

    So what is it about activity that makes it different from objects? Why can't we just note that activity, experience, and words aren't the same, but we can talk about them?Moliere

    It's not necessarily activity, but the ability to use sensory information. Sensory information - experience, qualia, "what it's like" - is, at least partly, ineffable. It's not that we "cannot say objects", it's that we cannot say what it's like to sense; at least, not completely or not as a complete substitute for using the senses. It's much easier to just show someone. A picture is worth a thousand words.
  • The ineffable
    "Some things you have to learn on your own" looks like it is about an ineffable entity we might call "knowing how to ride a bike", but there is no difference between "knowing how to ride a bike" and "riding a bike"; we don't have two things here, one being bike riding and the other being knowing how to ride a bike.Banno

    Of course there is a difference between doing something and knowing how to do it. One doesn't need to be riding a bike in order to know how; one can know how to ride a bike even while they aren't doing so. Riding a bike and knowing how to ride are two different things.

    Or, suppose we had a list of the instructions for riding a bike, to whatever detail we desire. Would we then know how to ride a bike? Well, no. So what is missing? Just, and only, the riding of the bike. But that's not something it makes sense to add to the list!Banno

    Assuming that the instructions are complete, with nothing omitted, then we should expect to know how to ride a bike after reading them. The instructions could include sections on pedalling and maintaining balance, for example. If there is something that cannot be captured in the instructions which can only be learned by doing, then why should this "something" not be called ineffable?

    This is analogous to Mary's Room and the ability hypothesis. Mary supposedly learns everything there is to know about colour perception, except what colours look like or how to pick out colours by sight. This latter knowledge/ability is not included in the information that Mary reads while in her room which supposedly contains all there is to know about colour perception; it is only upon leaving her black-and-white room that she gains this ability. The fact that this knowledge/ability to identify colours could not be written down or verbalised, such that Mary could learn it within the confines of her black-and-white room, makes it ineffable. See also PI 78.

    What is there that cannot be said?Banno

    The ineffable.

    "...it hardly conveys the full experience" - of course not! That has to be experienced!Banno

    Then what "has to be experienced" is something that cannot be said.

    But as suggested to Frank, that just means that it is not something to be said, but something to be done.Banno

    It is "something to be done" because it cannot be said. That's what makes it ineffable. Otherwise, we should be able to say it.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    We cannot impose on the ball that it cannot not be red, just because our reasoning says so, because our reasoning might be wrong.Metaphysician Undercover

    If the entire linguistic community agrees that this ball is "red", then how might our "reasoning" be wrong? What "reasoning" is involved when we teach someone how to use the word "red"?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    I would say these are not an example of "opposition" but "negation". A dynamic between the "necessary" and "possibile" would be more of an oppositional relation.Merkwurdichliebe

    I take it you meant to say that a dynamic between the "necessary" and "impossible" would be more of an oppositional relation?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    It is not impossible to imagine any object being red or not being red. So even if all examples of a certain kind of object were red, it does not follow that a non-red object of that kind could not turn up.Janus

    Right, but if it were necessarily red, then it follows that a non-red object could not turn up. Otherwise, it would be not necessarily red and it follows that a non-red object could turn up.

    Even if (although we could never know it) all objects of a certain kind have been, are and will be red it does not seem to follow that it would be necessary that they were, are or will be red.Janus

    True, but if it were necessary, then they must always be red.

    That they were, are and will be all red could be a contingent matter, that is it just so happens that all of those kinds of objects have been, are and will be red.Janus

    I agree, and I think that regarding temporal events it is a contingent (non-necessary) matter. We were only discussing what's logically necessary, possible and impossible.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    One predicate is distinct from another if they don't have identical extensions, even if they overlap (as various cases of possibility and necessity do). One predicate is the opposite of another, usually, if one is the complement of the other, includes everything it doesn't and nothing it does. I'm not sure we have an everyday word for only being disjoint, that is, being a subset of the complement.Srap Tasmaner

    Sounds reasonable. Does that imply "possible" is not the opposite of "impossible"?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    That's quite reasonable, but relying on "opposite" to mean different things will just lead to trouble.Srap Tasmaner

    How have I used "opposite" to mean different things?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Not Necessarily Red is equivalent to Possibly Not Red.Srap Tasmaner
    What you're missing is that we only have Not Necessarily Red — so we know at least one marble is non-red — but we don't have Not Necessarily Not Red (i.e., Possibly Red), so it is entirely consistent for the set of marbles to be all non-red.Srap Tasmaner

    Thanks for taking the time to clarify. I understand now. I wrote this down to help get my head around it:

    1. Necessary (▢): Necessarily Red = All are red
    2. Possible Not (~▢): Not Necessarily Red = At least one is not red (not all are red)
    3. Possible (~▢~): Not Necessarily Not Red = At least one is red (not none are red)
    4. Impossible (▢~): Necessarily Not Red = None are red

    I wasn't aware of the distinction between Possible Not and Possible when I asked my question earlier. It's more logically pedantic than what I had in mind. Possible Not and Possible both denote possibility, referring to "some" as opposed to "all" or "none". However, while I accept that Possible Not and Possible are technically different to each other, I think they can still be viewed as "opposed to" or distinct from Necessary and Impossible, respectively, each in the same (but inverse) way. Does logical negation constitute an opposite? Because, in the table above, 2 is the negation of 1 and 3 is the negation of 4.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    It is unclear to me why Not Necessary (◇~) is not also equivalent to Possible (◇).Luke

    Not Necessarily is Possibly Not, so that's our existential quantifier. It says you can pick a non-red marble from the set because there is at least one non-red marble to be picked. If you can't pick a non-red marble, that's because all the marbles are red; that's the situation we say we are not in.

    And it should be clear that there being at least one non-red marble in the set is consistent with there being only non-red marbles in the set. That is, Possibly Not Red is consistent with Necessarily Not Red.
    Srap Tasmaner

    My question was why Not Necessary (◇~) is not also equivalent to Possible (◇).

    In the section quoted above, you start out referring to Not Necessarily (red), which means that "there is at least one non-red marble to be picked". But you then make the subtle switch to talking about Necessarily Not (red),

    If Not Necessarily (red) means "there is at least one non-red marble to be picked", then I still don't see how that differs from Possibly (red), which means that "at least one of the marbles is red" and that not "all the marbles are red" (otherwise red would be necessary).
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    and you want to know why it's not equivalent to Possibly P

    ~▢~P
    Srap Tasmaner

    Isn't Possibly P also ~▢P?

    I've got my usual urn of marbles, and I tell you that the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red. You can conclude, given that the urn is not empty, that there is at least one marble in the urn that is not red. Good so far?Srap Tasmaner

    I wouldn't think it follows from "the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red" that there must be at least one marble that's not red. I would think it follows from "the marbles in the urn are not necessarily red" that it is possible that all marbles in the urn are red, that some marbles in the urn are red, or that no marbles in the urn are red.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    It is unclear to me why Not Necessary (◇~) is not also equivalent to Possible (◇).
    — Luke

    The problem is necessity.

    Saying something is true might seem to entail that it could be false, but it doesn't, because what you're saying might be necessarily true. 3 + 4 is 7 doesn't entail that 3 + 4 might not be 7.

    So it is with possibility: to say that P is possible might seem to entail that ~P is also possible, but we can't do that because it may be that P is necessary, and that's why it's possible. Same as above: it is possible that 3 + 4 is 7, because it is, and it is necessarily.

    Does that make sense?
    Srap Tasmaner

    Not really. I asked about non-necessity - why it's not equivalent to possible/possibly - and you've responded that we need to beware of necessity...? But I'm assuming non-necessity.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    So, no, Possible (◇) is the opposite of Not Possible (~◇), and nothing else.

    The opposite of Necessary (~◇~) is Not Necessary (◇~).
    Srap Tasmaner

    Not Necessary (◇~) is equivalent to Possibly Not (◇~).

    It is unclear to me why Not Necessary (◇~) is not also equivalent to Possible (◇).
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    This is not a happy use of "opposes"; see below.Srap Tasmaner

    Possible is opposed to Not Possible. Isn't Possible also opposed to Not Possibly Not?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Metaphysically speaking, I take these terms to mean:

    1. Impossible = cannot occur
    2. Possible = can occur
    3. Necessary = must occur

    This does not make "necessary" and "possible" the same. It opposes the concepts of 1 and 2 to each other, and the concepts of 2 and 3 to each other. This does not require "possible" to be in a distinct category.
    — Luke

    Yes, that's exactly the problem. If (1) is defined as opposed to (2), and (3) is defined as opposed to (2), then (1) and (3) must have the very same meaning, by definition.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    Why? I've already defined them above and you can see that they don't have the very same meaning. If 1 and 3 must have the same meaning, then my definitions must be incorrect. So, how are they incorrect?

    Therefore we need a fix for this problem.Metaphysician Undercover

    Or else your assumption that they must have the very same meaning is faulty.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    All you have here is the meaningless, circular definition, which I objected to earlier. "Necessary" is defined as "not possible", and "possible" is defined as "not necessary". But this is not truthful for the reasons I've given. "Necessary" is properly opposed to "impossible", as I've explained. And "impossible" cannot be opposed to "possible" because this would make "necessary" and "possible" the same. So we need to put "possible" in a place distinct from the category which contains those opposites, necessary and impossible.Metaphysician Undercover

    Metaphysically speaking, I take these terms to mean:

    1. Impossible = cannot occur
    2. Possible = can occur
    3. Necessary = must occur

    This does not make "necessary" and "possible" the same. It opposes the concepts of 1 and 2 to each other, and the concepts of 2 and 3 to each other. This does not require "possible" to be in a distinct category.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Whoa! Do I get some sort of prize for bringing this about?Srap Tasmaner

    For finding a point of agreement between MU and me? You probably should.

    I agree with all of this, at least in spirit, but you have to be careful about the position from which such a claim is made. We have to be able to say that what is cannot not be without falling into a modal fallacy of treating all truths as necessary.Srap Tasmaner

    I’m pretty sure I’m not committing that fallacy, but I can see how MU most likely is.

    MU's point is, I think, a little different: from our position in time, we can only "really" think of the past as fixed, so claims about what was or was not possible in the past, at a time before some event occurred or didn't, are inherently somewhat suspicious.Srap Tasmaner

    I think you’re being quite generous there because that’s not how I’m reading him. He doesn’t mention such suspicion about what was possible in the past when he says that we can make free choices.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    You are simply misrepresenting what I said (as is your usual habit) to continue with a strawman argument. I didn't say that it was necessary that you had to have toast instead of cereal. To the contrary, I said that was a choice you made from real possibilities. What I say, is that now, after you've had toast, it is impossible to change that fact, so it is necessary. So I'll repeat, though I doubt it will affect your strawman, before the act, it is possible, after the act, it is necessary.Metaphysician Undercover

    You are using "necessary" as a synonym for "has happened", "in the past", or "no longer possible". Nobody but you uses "necessary" to mean "no longer possible". Even if I freely chose to have toast instead of cereal for breakfast and nothing about having toast was inevitable, you would call this event "necessary" only because it is no longer possible to replay the event and to choose again. This fails to answer whether the original event was necessary or merely possible in the first place.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    But what about the events that have happened in the past? Is it inherent to the past that an event which occurs at a past time cannot change? Or is that something *else* we know about the past only a posteriori?Srap Tasmaner

    My answer would probably be the same as MU's on this point.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    I mean, it's not possible. You're substituting another impossibility for the one I was entertaining: your question (if you were inclined to ask) would be, why don't cups unfall?Srap Tasmaner

    In the scenario you described, you said:

    Of course, that's not "possible," given thermodynamics and whatnot, but is it logically impossible?Srap Tasmaner

    I answered “yes” to this. Barring thermodynamic impossibility, your hypothetical situation is logically possible.

    All in hopes, if it wasn't clear, of understanding how temporality relates to alethic modality. Is one logically prior to the other? Which one?Srap Tasmaner

    I personally consider them to be somewhat independent, in that I do not consider necessity or possibility to be dependent on temporality. If it was ever possible to prevent the cup of coffee from falling off the car, then at no time is it, was it, or will it be necessary or inevitable that it did fall. Otherwise, it was, is, and will always be necessary or inevitable that it did fall, but in that case it’s hard to see how we could have free will or any real choice about it.

    I’m sure MU will have a different response.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    The aftermath of my coffee falling lasts from B to C, at which it is undone; before B, and after C, the coffee has not fallen.Srap Tasmaner

    So the coffee does fall at B, and then “unfalls” at (the later time) C? As though, as soon as the coffee hits the ground and spills, time then seemingly reverses, gathering up all the spilled coffee back into the cup and back on to the car? Except that time did not reverse from B to C, and this is what miraculously happened in “normal” time.

    In what, then, does the immutability of the past consist? Is it brute fact? Could it conceivably not be?Srap Tasmaner

    I think that the immutability of the past consists in the fact that events occur in time sequentially from A to B to C, and that once they have occurred they are in the past. Your example does not appear to indicate otherwise; the cup falls and then “unfalls”.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    If the former, then what is actual is/was not necessary.
    — Luke

    See, you explicitly conflate "is" and "was". There is a reason why we have different tenses for verbs, if you insist on ignoring this, then this discussion is pointless.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    I'm not conflating them; I'm arguing against your claim that present and past situations are necessary. Hence, the "is/was".

    I've responded to your supposed argument. It is simply based in a failure to recognize the difference in temporal perspectives. Looking ahead in time at future acts, is not the same as looking backward in time at past acts. Therefore, within the minds of human beings, future acts have a different status from past acts.Metaphysician Undercover

    That does not explain why present/past situations are necessary; or why it is necessary that I had to have toast instead of cereal for breakfast this morning. You are doing nothing more than stipulating that present/past situations are necessary, which does not explain how you are using the term.

    I propose that we look at future acts as "possible", and past acts as "necessary". You are resisting this. Can you explain why? Your argument so far seems to be that if we name past acts as "necessary", then future acts must also be called "necessary". But as I've explained, that is to ignore the difference between how we look at the past and how we look at the future.Metaphysician Undercover

    I am resisting your "proposal" because if we have a real choice in the matter, like you say we do, then it was not necessary that I had toast instead of cereal for breakfast this morning. I had a real choice to have had cereal instead of toast. That is, the past situation of me having toast for breakfast this morning was not necessary. I am using "necessary" here in the sense of "inevitable" or "predetermined", as opposed to having a "real choice" in the matter. How are you using "necessary"?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Are they real possibilities which each have a genuine chance of being the actual outcome, or are they merely a function of our knowledge/ignorance and there is only ever one real possibility?
    — Luke

    As I said, they are a feature of one's knowledge. However, this does not mean that they are not real or genuine. Knowledge is real and genuine. The realness, or genuineness of the possibilities which one considers is dependent on the scope of one's knowledge of the situation. Sometimes a person will fail in an effort to do something, and sometimes a person might not grasp a possibility which is obvious to someone else. That the possibilities are in one's mind, and are features of how one understands one's current situation, does not mean that they are not real. Nor does it mean that the person has no real choice.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    I don't doubt that one's knowledge is real and genuine, but I am more interested in this idea of a "real choice". For example, if I had a real choice of whether to have toast or cereal for breakfast this morning, then it was not necessary that I had toast (as I did) because I could have had cereal instead.

    You refuse to acknowledge this argument against the necessity of actuality. You simply repeat - without argument - that actual situations are necessary. Given that you refuse to even acknowledge this argument against inevitability, and since you seemingly contradict yourself by claiming that people have a "real choice", then it is unclear to me what you mean when you assert that actual situations are "necessary".

    If every situation is necessary and had to turn out the way it did, then how does any situation allow for a "real choice" from among several possibilities? The implication is that I could never have really chosen to have cereal instead of toast; that toast was always the only real possibility.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Yes, those possibilities are how we think "about" the future, just like we can say something "about" the future.Metaphysician Undercover

    Are they real possibilities which each have a genuine chance of being the actual outcome, or are they merely a function of our knowledge/ignorance and there is only ever one real possibility?

    If the former, then what is actual is/was not necessary. If the latter, then we have no free will.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    The particular possibilities at t0 are possibilities regarding the future situation at t1; they are not possibilities regarding the present situation at t0. There are no other possibilities (for t0) at t0 other than the actual situation.
    — Luke

    No, the possibilities are the ones which are present, at the current time. Yes, they are derived from our view toward the future, but they are stated as the possibilities which are present. They are an aspect of one's knowledge. So, "that there will be a sea battle tomorrow", is a possibiltiy present right now in my mind, if I believe this.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    As I said, the possibilities which are present, at the current time (at t0), are possibilities regarding the future situation (at t1). You acknowledge this with the example about today's possibility of tomorrow's sea battle - the possibilities are regarding the future situation, not the present situation. The possibilities are not about themselves; they are about the future potential sea battle.

    I'm saying that after the act is carried out it is no longer a possibility in my mind, it is necessary, as what has been carried out, what is actual.Metaphysician Undercover

    And I am saying that if there were other genuine possibilities prior to the act being carried out, then it was not necessary, because one of those alternative possibilities could actually have been carried out instead. It is only if there had been no other genuine possibilities that could actually have been carried out instead, that the act being carried out would be necessary.

    Your assertion that all actual situations are necessary negates that there are ever any genuinely alternative possibilities, and thus precludes free will.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    What was meant in the quoted passage, was that "possible worlds" referred to logical possibilities for what is the case. If we do not know precisely what is the case in a specific situation, we allow for many different possibilities.Metaphysician Undercover

    Those different possibilities are regarding a future situation, not the current situation. We do not know whether there will be a sea battle tomorrow, and it is possible today that there will be a sea battle tomorrow or there won't be a sea battle tomorrow. But. come tomorrow, there will be no other possibilities regarding the sea battle except for the one that becomes the actual situation.

    The particular possibilities at 10, are no longer possibilities at 11. That's the nature of passing time, things change as time passesMetaphysician Undercover

    Exactly. The particular possibilities at t0 are possibilities regarding the future situation at t1; they are not possibilities regarding the present situation at t0. There are no other possibilities (for t0) at t0 other than the actual situation.

    No, none of them are possibilities after the act, not even the one you chose, that's the point. You can't have your cake and eat it too. Once you eat the cake, eating it is no longer a possibility.Metaphysician Undercover

    You either had other possibilities (prior to eating the cake) at t0 besides eating the cake at t1, or you didn't have other possibilities at t0 besides eating the cake at t1. If you had other possibilities at t0, then eating the cake at t1 was possible. If you didn't have other possibilities at t0, then eating the cake at t1 was necessary. I don't agree that eating the cake at t1 was necessary if you had other possibilities at t0. This a misuse of the term "necessary".
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Suppose "possible world" means that if we identify all the possible worlds, one of the possible worlds must be the actual world. That is, we assume such a thing as the actual world, and we assume we've identified all the possible worlds, so necessarily one of the possible worlds is the actual world. Then we proceed to identify one of the possibilities as the actual world, the real world. As soon as we do this, we negate the defined status of "possible" from all the other worlds. They can no longer be the actual world, because we've identified the actual world and it's something else. Since we've named one as "actual", the others can no longer be classed as "possible", without changing the original definition of "possible".Metaphysician Undercover

    What you mean by "possible" is that the future holds more than one possibility; that there are several possible worlds and one of those becomes the actual world. I don't disagree with this. What opposes this view of "possible", and what I mean by "necessary", is that the future holds only one possibility; that there is only one possible world and only that world can become the actual world. What also opposes this view of "possible", and what I mean by "impossible", are those worlds that could never become the actual world because, e.g., they are physically impossible.

    If there is more than one possible world at t0 and one of those becomes the actual world at t1, then the actual world at t1 is still one of those possible worlds that was at t0; one of the possibilities that could have been. Otherwise, for you to say that what is actual is what is necessary means that there were no other possibilities at t0; that no other world at t1 was possible at t0. This eliminates free will.

    I think this is the common misconception of free will, which leads to all sorts of problems. After you have marked the box, engaged in the free will act, we cannot, from that temporal perspective, say that you might have marked a different box. From that temporal perspective, after the fact, it is impossible that you might have done otherwise. You did what you did, and at this time it is impossible that it might be otherwise. And this misconception (straw man), that if you had free will, you might have done otherwise, when you really can't because what's done is done. gives fodder to the determinist argument, . However, this does not change the fact that prior to the act you have many choices, and there are many possibilities for boxes which you might mark. So free will is very real from this perspective, despite the fact that you cannot have dome other than what you did.Metaphysician Undercover

    If you had many possibilities prior to the act, then the one that became actual remains one of those possibilities. It is only if you had no other possibilities prior to the act that what is actual would be necessary. Describing a situation as "necessary" because we have no other possibilities during the act (at the present time, in the actual world) leads to bizarre consequences and makes no sense of free will, or of freely choosing to make actual one of several possibilities. You are then describing as "necessary" something that you freely chose to make actual. What does "necessary" mean in that case? The word loses its familiar meaning.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    However, if I recall correctly, you made the absurd claim earlier that "possible" is not the opposite of "impossible".
    — Luke

    That's right, imposible ought not be considered as opposite to possible, because it leads to the ambiguity of "necessary" which I described and you don't seem to understand.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    "Possible" is the opposite of "impossible". It is absurd to deny it. Whatever ambiguous meaning of "necessary" you think results from this makes no difference to the fact. You do not get to personally decide the meanings of these words.

    Then you have likewise rendered "possible" as extremely ambiguous and misleading.
    — Luke

    Yes, "possible" is extremely ambiguous and misleading. But it has been this way for a long time, so it is not I who has rendered it thus.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    So if I consider "possible" as the opposite of "impossible", then I have gone awry in my thinking because it leads to ambiguous consequences for the meaning of the word "necessary", but the word "possible" was always ambiguous and not because you've gone awry in your thinking? This is just nonsense.

    If you think that what is actual is not also what is possible, then what is actual must also be what is necessary. Consequently, free will is an illusion.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    The problem is that when we turn to the temporal nature of reality, what is, is what is necessary.Metaphysician Undercover

    Right. That's the problem I'm pointing out to you, which results from your claim that what is actual is not also what is possible.

    And what is, is in the same category as what is not, as its opposite. Now we would have two very distinct opposites of "necessary", what is possible, and what is not.Metaphysician Undercover

    I never claimed that "necessary" is the opposite of what is not.

    I could equally say that we have two very distinct opposites of "possible" with your claim: what is impossible and what is. However, if I recall correctly, you made the absurd claim earlier that "possible" is not the opposite of "impossible".

    Yes, this is exactly the problem with defining "possible" like you propose, which I explain above. It renders "necessary" as extremely ambiguous and misleading.Metaphysician Undercover

    Then you have likewise rendered "possible" as extremely ambiguous and misleading.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    ...there is no opposite to may or may not be.Metaphysician Undercover

    I would have thought the opposite to "may or may not be" was "must or must not be".

    If what is actual is not (also) what is possible, then what is actual is (also) what is necessary.

    If what is actual is (also) what is necessary, then this precludes free will.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    I understand that, but my point is that if one can know that p but not be certain then it should be acceptable to say "I know that p but I am not certain"Michael

    What I tend to say when I’m uncertain is “I don’t know” or “I don’t know for sure”, rather than “I do know but I’m uncertain”.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Does the weather forecaster actually know somethingMetaphysician Undercover

    Does anyone actually know anything, according to you?
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Here, you are asserting "In the first scenario it is raining, in the second scenario it is not". Do you know whether or not it is raining in each scenario, in an absolute way? If so, I can give you an answer. If not, I cannot. This is because I cannot say whether Alice has knowledge or not unless I know infallibly whether or not it is raining.Metaphysician Undercover

    You'd be a terrible weatherman.
  • Do the past and future exist?
    According to presentism, if we were to make an accurate list of all the things that exist...there would be not a single merely past or merely future object on the list. Thus, you and the Taj Mahal would be on the list, but neither Socrates nor any future Martian outposts would be included. (Assuming, that is, both (i) that each person is identical to his or her body, and (ii) that Socrates’s body ceased to be present—thereby going out of existence, according to presentism—shortly after he died. Those who reject the first of these assumptions should simply replace the examples in this article involving allegedly non-present people with appropriate examples involving the non-present bodies of those people.) And it is not just Socrates and future Martian outposts, either—the same goes for any other putative object that lacks the property of being present. No such objects exist, according to presentism.

    There are different ways to oppose presentism—that is, to defend the view that at least some non-present objects exist. One version of non-presentism is eternalism, which says that objects from both the past and the future exist. According to eternalism, non-present objects like Socrates and future Martian outposts exist now, even though they are not currently present. We may not be able to see them at the moment, on this view, and they may not be in the same space-time vicinity that we find ourselves in right now, but they should nevertheless be on the list of all existing things.

    It might be objected that there is something odd about attributing to a non-presentist the claim that Socrates exists now, since there is a sense in which that claim is clearly false. In order to forestall this objection, let us distinguish between two senses of “x exists now”. In one sense, which we can call the temporal location sense, this expression is synonymous with “x is present”. The non-presentist will admit that, in the temporal location sense of “x exists now”, it is true that no non-present objects exist now. But in the other sense of “x exists now”, which we can call the ontological sense, to say that “x exists now” is just to say that x is now in the domain of our most unrestricted quantifiers. Using the ontological sense of “exists”, we can talk about something existing in a perfectly general sense, without presupposing anything about its temporal location. When we attribute to non-presentists the claim that non-present objects like Socrates exist right now, we commit non-presentists only to the claim that these non-present objects exist now in the ontological sense (the one involving the most unrestricted quantifiers).
    SEP article on Time
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Surely we know our collective fiction (which is the model, which is the world) in exactly the same way, and with the same level of surety, that we know Aragorn was king of Gondor. So, whence surprise?
    — Luke

    From hidden states.
    Isaac

    Hidden states are the world, right? (However, you also say that the model is the world?)

    Who said anything about the world surprising us?Isaac

    I have been trying to.

    Since it is possible that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, it follows that there is more to truth than a mere "collective fiction".
    — Luke

    This is only true if the terms are interchangeable (that truth is about the model being surprising), otherwise your conclusion doesn't follow, hence you begged the question by assuming that relation in your argument for it.
    Isaac

    That's not at all what I've been attempting to say. I reject this reading that "truth is about the model being surprising".

    What I have been saying is that if the model is the world which is a collective fiction, then there should be no surprises. This "collective fiction" view is your account of redunancy, yes? Do you agree that there are no surprises with the truth of the collective fiction that "Aragorn was king of Gondor"? If so, then I don't see why the same should not extend to all (other) truths. According to redundancy, therefore, there should be no surprises. What I mean by a "surprise" is that our expectations are not met. But if it is our collective fiction, then why would our expectations not be met? We should always expect that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" is true, right?

    However, in opposition to this, you also state that "the hidden states the world is a collective model of may be modelled imperfectly". This imperfect modelling indicates that occasionally our expectations may not be met. And that indicates a problem for the "collective fiction" view of redundancy. If it is the view of redundancy that there are no surprises and our expectations are always met because of our collective fiction, then there should be no "imperfect modelling".

    I take the position of redundancy to be that there are no matters outside of language, and that the model is equivalent to the world, whether that is your personal view or not.
    — Luke

    I really don't know where you're getting that idea from.
    Isaac

    I'm getting it from my understanding of redundancy. If "p is true" is no more than "p", then the model and the "hidden states" are one and the same. In other words, there are no hidden states, only the model; only the collective fiction. Hence my charge of relativism. There should be no place for a "better model" according to redundancy. I see this as being the reason @Srap Tasmaner asks what makes it a "better" model, instead of merely a free or random change to the existing/previous model.

    A better model indicates that what makes "p" true (or "more" true) is having/getting our model of the world perfect, or closer to perfection. It means that "p is true" is not just whatever we call "p" at a given time; but is instead the best version of "p" of all time - the "p" that perfectly models the world.

    Once the world and model come apart, then it is no longer redundancy/deflationism (at least, as I understand it).
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    You didn't say why there should be no surprises using my analogy with "Aragorn was king of Gondor".Isaac

    Because we could never be surprised to find that Aragorn was not king of Gondor, or that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" is false. Surely we know our collective fiction (which is the model, which is the world) in exactly the same way, and with the same level of surety, that we know Aragorn was king of Gondor. So, whence surprise?

    Because the hidden states the world is a collective model of may be modelled imperfectly.Isaac

    Then the model is not equivalent to the world; there is a distinction between them. The world is not the model or a collective fiction, because the world can surprise us.

    By that logic, you are also begging the question by assuming 'truth' does not refer to such hidden states.
    — Luke

    I'm not assuming though. That conclusion doesn't itself form part of my argument for it.
    Isaac

    My point was that I'm not assuming, either. How am I begging the question by pointing out your inconsistency?

    Come on, at least the bare minimum of effort to fairly represent your interlocutors. It's literally written in the very quote you cited...Isaac

    I quoted you fairly, didn't I? I could have cut it short and quoted you like this instead:

    Therefore, there are no boiling kettles outside of language, either?
    — Luke

    No.
    Isaac

    You also said:

    The boiling kettle can't be 'true' since there are no matters, outside of language, which could make it so.Isaac

    Anyway, I take the position of redundancy to be that there are no matters outside of language, and that the model is equivalent to the world, whether that is your personal view or not.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    You clearly misunderstood what I said. Or, as is often the case with you Luke, you intentionally misrepresented what I wrote. Whatever, I will repeat myself as usual. The same ideas which are knowledge at one time are not knowledge at another time.Metaphysician Undercover

    You claim I've misunderstood or misrepresented, yet you re-state what I said, exactly as I understood it and represented it.

    You are talking about knowledge of p (i.e. Kp) at one time and not-knowledge of p (i.e. ~Kp) at another time. Once again, this is irrelevant to the factive claim regarding positive knowledge of not-p (i.e. K~p).

    I won't bother wasting any further keystrokes.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Why should there be no surprises if the world is the model?Isaac

    There should be no surprises if the world is the model because you claim that the model is a collective fiction. I already answered the question of why there should be no surprises using your analogy with "Aragorn was king of Gondor". You did not address it.

    Why should there be any surprises if the world is the model and the model is a collective fiction?

    Since it is possible that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, it follows that there is more to truth than a mere "collective fiction".
    — Luke

    Only if you already beg the very question we're debating by assuming 'truth' refers to the hidden states that the model is of.
    Isaac

    By that logic, you are also begging the question by assuming 'truth' does not refer to such hidden states.

    However, I'm criticising your claim that the semantic content of expressions refer to a collective fiction. My argument is that this collective fiction cannot possibly be false, for the same reason that "Aragorn was king of Gondor" cannot possibly be false. The reason this collective fiction cannot possibly be false is simply because it is a collective fiction. I fail to understand how a collective fiction could possibly be false, and you have yet to provide any explanation. Since it cannot be false, then there should be no surprises, as the collective fiction is always true. Surprisingly, however, you admit that our collective fiction could be false. This leads me to question your claim that the semantic content of expressions refer to a collective fiction.

    Pointing out such inconsistencies is hardly begging the question.

    No one is saying anything about there being 'nothing' outside of language, I don't know where you're getting this from.Isaac

    You seem to have forgotten the current discussion from a week or two (and longer) ago, where several participants were arguing for a world independent of and outside of language. The discussion included my argument with Banno that sentences are not kettles, as well as these exchanges that you and I had:

    The boiling kettle can't be 'true' since there are no matters, outside of language, which could make it so.
    — Isaac

    Therefore, there are no boiling kettles outside of language, either? There are only statements about kettles but no actual kettles?

    If something 'outside' of language constitutes the 'kettle' regarding which we're assessing the truth of some property, then what is it?
    — Isaac

    The kettle itself; not merely talk about a kettle.
    Luke

    Therefore, there are no boiling kettles outside of language, either?
    — Luke

    No. Language is what delineates 'kettle' as an object. Without it, there's just 'the stuff that kettles are drawn from'.
    Isaac

    That's where I'm "getting this from". You were one of those saying something "about there being 'nothing' outside of language".
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    That was one of my two options: At one time the person claimed to know p, but it turns out later that they did not know p.
    — Luke

    That's not what I said.
    Metaphysician Undercover

    That's exactly what you said. I quoted you as saying that the person does not know p. Here it is again:

    What is correct, is that what is at one time called "knowledge", is at another time not allowed to be called knowledge. So the same ideas at one point in time qualify to be called "knowledge", yet at a later time are said not to be knowledge.Metaphysician Undercover

    You clearly refer to negative knowledge of p (i.e. ~Kp); not to positive knowledge of not-p (i.e. K~p). You say that it is not knowledge: "not allowed to be called knowledge", "said not to be knowledge". It is unreasonable to deny this; it is there in black and white.

    What I am saying is that p was a part of the person's knowledge at one time, and not-p was a part of the person's knowledge at another time, because knowledge changes. The person clearly knew p, as p may have played a significant role in the person's body of knowledge. So we clearly cannot change this to say that the person did not know p, because this would involve the contradictory conclusion that the knowledge possessed at the time was not really knowledge.Metaphysician Undercover

    You are effectively saying that p was true at one time and is false at another time. I am saying that this attacks a straw man and does not address the factive claim. It cannot be known that not-p is true if p is true, due to non-contradiction. This applies at any given time.

    That p is true is a judgement. And of course, if one judges that p is true, then this person obviously does not know not-p. So, who is making the judgement that p is true in your example?Metaphysician Undercover

    The same person or people making the judgment that p is true in your example. It makes no difference.

    Obviously it's not the person who knows not-p.Metaphysician Undercover

    Obviously not. Nobody can know that not-p is true if p is true.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    Just like the fact that we all 'know' Aragorn was king of Gondor.
    — Isaac

    I used your example of '"Aragorn was king of Gondor" is true' to demonstrate this. That proposition is part of the "collective fiction" model and it's not possible that it could be false.
    — Luke

    I don't understand how it's not possible to be false.
    Isaac

    Because that's not how the story (or model) goes. As you said, it's a fact we all know.

    "Aragorn is the king of Mordor" is false.Isaac

    Because that's not how the story (or model) goes.

    Why? You're connecting 'truth' to surprise but that's the very connection in question - the degree to which the truth of "the kettle is boiling" is connected to the hidden states that might surprise me. I'm not denying that hidden states can cause surprise I'm denying the link (or the strength of it) between them and the semantic content of a speech act such as "the kettle is boiling".Isaac

    What do you mean by "hidden states" exactly? Are hidden states a feature of deflationism? Because I was attempting to poke a hole in deflationism, not in your personal theory of truth.

    I might have a model of my environment that I interact with and could be surprised by (if I get my predictions wrong, or fail to control it).Isaac

    Isn't the view of deflationism that the model is the environment? You call this model/environment a "collective fiction".

    Correspondence theory seems to want have it that our words somehow try to match that environment. I'm arguing that that's not what our words do.Isaac

    You're arguing that this is not what our words do?

    Truth is a property of statements, so the extent to which our words don't match an external world, is the extent to which the truth is unrelated to the external world.Isaac

    You're arguing that this is what our words do? Sounds a lot like correspondence theory with its matching that you describe above.
  • "What is truth? said jesting Pilate; and would not stay for an answer."
    I don't follow your argument here. I'm saying that the function of the collective fiction is to reduce surprise about each other's behaviourIsaac

    I'm taking this "collective fiction" to be equivalent with our language, which I also take to be roughly equivalent to the view of redundancy/deflationism. If the world is the model, then there should be no surprises. I used your example of '"Aragorn was king of Gondor" is true' to demonstrate this. That proposition is part of the "collective fiction" model and it's not possible that it could be false. But it is possibile that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, because you speak of the possibility of a better model. Since it is possible that our model could be false in at least some respects, and that we could be surprised, it follows that there is more to truth than a mere "collective fiction".

    Firstly one can still be surprised by that very behaviour if, for example, the fiction fails in its task. Second, one can still be surprised by one's environment. The actual response and the act of naming it are two different things. You seem to be conflating the two.Isaac

    No, I'm saying that redundancy conflates the two. If "p is true" means no more than "p" and there is nothing "outside" language, then I don't see how it is possible for the fiction to fail in its task.